Full
Length Paper One
Medical
College Entry Test
P
hysics
1. The relation between the centigrade,
Fahrenheit scale is given by
(a)
C = F
– 100 (b) C =
F – 100
180
1800 32 180
(c)
C = F – 32 (d) C = F - 32
10 180 100 180
(e) None of the above
2. According to
Charle’s Law
(a)
PV = Constant (b) P ∞ V
(c)
V is constant (d) None of the above
T
3. If “ λ
” is the wavelength of the radiation used and a is the diameter
of the telescope objective or mirror then the resolving power of a
telescope is
(a)
N × m (b) 1.22 λ
α
(c)
0.61 λ (d) λα
nα
1.22
(e) None of the above
4. The normal eye
has the power to adjust from about
(a)
–60 + 64diopters (b) –60 + 68diopters
(c)
–68 + 72diopters (d) –72 + 76diopters
(e) None of the above
5. In
case of point source the wave front is of
(a) Spherical shape (b) Plane
(c) Elliptical shape (d) a & b
(e) None of the above
6. A
fringe is path of
(a) Constant amplitude (b) Constant Phase
(c) Same wave length (d) All of the above
(e) None of the above
7. What is the
range of audibility (vib/sec)
(a)
2 × 10 →
2 × 102
(b)
2 × 10 →
2 × 103
(c)
2 × 10 →
2 × 104
(d)
2 × 10 →
2 × 105
(e)
2 × 10 →
2 × 106
8. A body
vibrating with a certain frequency sends waves 12cm long through
medium “a” and 20 cm long through a medium “b”.
The velocity of wave in “a” is 120 cm/sec. Find the
velocity in the medium “b”
(a)
150 cm/sec (b) 180 cm/sec
(c) 240 cm/sec (d) 200 cm/sec
(e) None of the above
9. A complete circle is equivalent to
(a) half wave
length (b) Full wave length
(c) Quarter wave
length (d) None of the above
10. If T is the time period of a body executing SHM, its angular
frequency ω is
(a) ω = 2π (b) ω =
2π
τ
(c) ω = 2 π
r2 (d) ω = m v2
3
r
(e) None of above
11. What gauge
pressure is required in the city mains for a stream from a fire hose
connected to the mains to reach vertical height of 15.0m
(a) 1.47 × 105 Pa (b) 1.47 ×
103 Pa
(c) 1 Pa (d) non of these
12. Smoke
rising from the cigarette is an example of
(a) Streamline flow (b) turbulent
(c) both a & b (d) None of these
13. →
→
The
equation ω θi
– θf is equation of
t
(a) Angular
Acceleration (b) Angular Velocity
(c) Average Angular
velocity
(d) Instantaneous
angular speed
(e) None of the above
14. The unit
rad/sec2 is of.
(a) α (b)
ω t (c) θ
(d) τ (e) All of
above
15. The
energy possessed by a moving mass because of its motion is called
(a) P.E of a moving body (b) K.E of a moving body (c)
Rotational energy of a moving body (d) All of the above (e) None of
the above
16. The rotting of biomass in a closed tank; produces
(a) CO2 (b) NH3 (c) Biogas
(d) Cl2 (e) Br2
17. Which
graph represents the motion of a body undergoing uniform acceleration
S
S
S
A O (c) t
O E t
S S
B t
D t
18. Suppose
the water flows out form a pipe at the rate of 3Kg/sec and its
velocity changes from 5 m/sec to zero on striking the wall, then
Force = ?
(a) 6 N (b) 25
N (c) 15 N
(d) 20 N (e) None of
the above
19. j × k = ?
(a) i (b)
zero (d) –Z
(d) 1 (e) None of the
above
20. The magnitude of cross product of two
perpendicular vectors will be
(a) Zero (b)
Minimum (c) Maximum
(d) 1 (e) none of the
above
21. The prefix
micro represents the
(a)
1018 the part of a quantity (b) 106 the part
of a quantity
(c)
10-12 the part of a quantity (e) 10-6 the part
of a quantity
(d) None of the above
22. The distance
traveled by electromagnetic radiation in vacuum in one year i.e.
9.4607 ×
1015 meter is called
(a)
Astronomical distance (b) Light year (c) Light guide
(d) Big distance (e) None of the above
23. Energy stored in capacitor is:
(a) 1
CV2 (b) 1 CV2
2 4
(c) 1 C2
V (d) 1 CV4
2
2
24. The charging time of the capacitor depends
open:
(a) R ×
C (b) R
C
(c) R ×
L (d) RL
C
25. The
capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor is given by:
(a)
C = A (b) C = Aεо
εоd d
(c) C =
εоd (d) C = εоAd
A
26. If a charge Q
flows through any cross section of the conductor in time t, the
current I is:
(a) I = Qt (b) I = Q
t
(c) I = t (d) I = Q2
Q t
27. The resistance
of a conductor of length L, cross-sectional area A and resistively ρ
is given by:
(a)
R = L (b) R = ρL
ρA A
(c)
R = A (d) R = ρ
ρL LA
28. The equivalent
resistance in series circuit is:
(a)
Re = R1 + R2 + R3 (b) Re = 1 + 1
+ 1
R1 R2 R3
(c)
1 = 1 + 1 + 1 (d) all of above
Re R1 R2 R3
29. Magnetic flux
and flux density are related by:
(a) Flux density = Flux × Area (b) Flux density
= Flux
Area
(c) Flux = Flux density (d) None of the above
Area
30. Amperes law
mathematically can be expressed as:
(a)
n →
→ (b) n →
→
∑ B . ∆L = μ0I
∑ B . ∆L = μ0A
i = 1 i = 1
(c)
n →
→ (d)
n →
→
∑ B . ∆L = μ0N
∑ B . ∆L = μ0R
i = 1 i = 1
31. The
sensitivity of a galvanometer depends upon the factors:
(a)
C (b) BAN
BAN C
(c)
BC (d) none of these
AN
32. Mathematically
faraday’s law can be expressed as:
(a) ε = N ∆ф (b) ε
= -N ∆ф
∆t ∆t
(c) ε = -N ∆I (b) ε = N
∆t
∆t ∆ф
33. The movable
wire is moved to the right causing an anticlockwise induced current.
The direction of magnetic induction in the region P.
p
oints
to the right
(
b)
points to the left I I
points up the
paper P
(d)
points down into the paper
34. The
north pole of a magnet is moves away from a metallic ring. The
current flows:
S
(a) clockwise (b) anticlockwise
(c) first clockwise and then anticlockwise
N
(d)
none of above
35. In an L.C.R,
A.C circuit, the current becomes minimum when.
(a) Xl > XC (b) XL = XC
(c)
√XL XC (d) XL < XC
36. The resonance
frequency in case of series resonance circuit is given by.
(a)
f = 1 (b) f = 1
4π√ L C 2π√ L C
(c)
f = 1 (d) None of the above
5π√ L C
37. Which current
can pass through a capacitor continuously.
(a) direct current (b) Electronic current
(c) Alternating current (d) Both (a) and (b)
38. Mathematically
stress can be expressed as.
(a) E = F (b) σ
= F
A A
(c) γ = ∆a (d) None of the above
a
39. Mathematically
the tensile strain can be expressed as.
(a) E = ∆l (b) σ
= F/A
l
(c) γ = ∆a (d) None
of the above
a
40. If
∆V be the change in volume and V is the original volume, the
volume strain is given by.
(a) ε = ∆V (b) ε = V
V ∆V
(c) ε = V∆V (d) None of these
41. Which of the
following diagram represent the wave form of a.c voltage after half
wave rectification.
(a)
(b)
(c) (d)
42. An expression
for current gain of a transistor is given by.
(a) B
= IB (b) B = IC + IB
IC
(c)
B = IC – IB (d) B = IB
IC
43. The
mathematical symbol for AND gate is.
(a) X
= A+B (b) X = A.B
(c) X = A +
B (d) X = A.B
44. In special
theory of relativity, an expression for mass variation is.
(a)
m = mo (b) m = mo
√1
– V2
√1
– C2
c2
V2
(c)
m = mo√1
– V2 (d)
None of these
c2
45. The process of
pair production takes place if the energy of photons is.
(a)
Greater than 2moc2 (b) Less than 2moC2
(c)
Equal to 2moC2 (d) None of these
46. The expression
derived by Compton for Compton shift scattering an angle θ is
given as.
(a)
∆λ = h (1 – cos θ) (b) ∆λ
= h (1 – cos θ)
moc
(c)
∆λ = moc (1 - cos θ) (d) ∆λ
= moc (1 - cos θ)
47. The electric
P.E of an electron in an orbit around the nucleus is:
(a)
–ke2 (b) ke
rn r2n
(c)
ke3 (d) –ke2
r2n r2n
48. The
experimental value of Rydberg’s constant is:
(a) 1.0974 × 107 m-1 (b)
1.0974 × 10-7 m-1
(c) 10.97 × 10-7 m-1 (d) 109.1 ×
10-9 m-1
49. The total
energy of an electron in the nth orbit of the hydrogen atom is given
by:
(a)
En = -2π Kme4 (b) En = -2π
K2me4
n2
h2 n2 h2
(c)
En = -2π K2me2 (d) En
= -π K2m2e2
n2 h2
n2 h2
50. A naturally
occurring disintegration involving the emission of high energy
electron is called:
(a) α-decay (b) β-decay
(c) γ-decay (d) None of these
51. Which of the
reaction shows the emission of β-particle:
(a)
zXA z-1XA-4 (b)
zXA z+1XA
(c)
zXA z-2XA-4 (d) None
of these
52. Which of the
reaction shows the emission of α-particles:
(a)
zXA z-1XA-4 (b)
zXA z+1XA
(c)
zXA z-2XA-4 (d) None
of these
53. The
radioactive decay obeys the law:
(a)
N = No eλt (b) N = No e-λt
(c)
No = N e-λt (d) No = N (1 +
e-λt)
54. The rate of
decay of radioactive substance.
X varies inversely with time (b)
Decreases with time
(c) Constant (d)
Decreases exponentially with time
55. If the
ionization energy of hydrogen atom is 13.6 ev, its ionization
potential will be:
(a) 136.0 volt (b) 3.0 volt
(c) 13.6 volt (d) None of these
56. The SI unit of
Rydberg constant is:
(a) m S-1 (b) m
(c) S m-1 (d) m-1
57. A black body
becomes white at temperature.
(a)
1300 cº (b) 900 cº
(c) 1500 cº (d) 1600 cº
58. The Compton
effect was presented in.
(a)
1933 (b) 1924
(c) 1920 (d) 1923
59. The forward
resistance of the p-n-junction is expressed as.
(a) rf = ∆vf × ∆If (b)
rf = ∆vf - ∆If
(c)
rf = ∆ vf (d) rf = ∆
If
∆ If ∆ Vf
60. The semi conductor diode has the property of
a.
(a) Two way
conduction (b) One way conduction
(c) Zero
conduction (d) None of these
C
hemistry
CH3
61.
CH3 Is a structural formula of
(a)
P-xylene (b) M-xylene
(c) O-xylene (d) None
of these
62. The
structural formula of benzoic acid is.
(a)
COOH (b) CH2
NH2 CH3
(c)
NH2 (d) CH3
63. All C-C bon lengths in benzene is.
(a) 1.242
Aº (b) 1.397 Aº
(c) 1.340 Aº (d)
1.348 Aº
H
64. The
IUPAC name of H C OH is
CH2
CH3
(a)
1-Propanol (b) 1-Propanal
(c) 1-Propanone (d)
1-Proanaldehyde
65. Grignard Reagent is much reactive than most
of
(a) Saturated
Compounds (b) Un saturated compounds
(c) Organic
compounds (d) Inorganic compound
66. Magnesium is more reactive than
(a)
Sulpher (b) Carbon
(c) Aluminum (d)
Oxygen
OH
67.
WO2
Is structural
formula of
(a) P-Nitro
phenol (b) O-Nitro phenol
(c) M-Nitro
Phenol (d) O-Nitrogen Phenol
OH
68.
Is
structural formula of
NO2
(a) P-Nitro
phenol (b) O-Nitro phenol
(c) O-Nitro
phenol (d) None of these
69. Methoxy benzene is a IUPAc name of
(a)
CH3 O C5 (b) CH3 O
C3H7
(c)
CH3 O C6H5 (d) C2H5
O C2H5
CH3
OC2H5
7
0.
C has IUPAC name
H
OC2H5
(a) 1,1
Diethyl ethane (b) 1,1 Diethyl ethane
(c) 1,1 diethyl oxy
ehane (d) 1,1 Diethoxy ethane
CH3
71.
C = N-NH2 is a structural formula of
CH3
(a) Acetone
Hydrazone (b) Acetyl Hydozone
(c) Acetol
Hydrazone (d) Acetaldehyde Hydrazone
72. Formaldehyde
is prepared by mixture of methyl alcohol vapors and air over
platinised
(a)
300 ºC (b) 400 ºC
(c) 500 ºC (d) 600 ºC
CH2
73.
COOH is a structural formula of
NH2
(a)
Glycerol (b) Gylcine
(c) Fatty acid (d) Glucose
74. When hydrogen
cyanide is added to an aldehyde in presence of ammonia, which of
following is produced
(a)
∞--- brome
acid (b) ∞---
amino acid
(c)
B---
amino acid (d) Y---
amino acid
75. The dipolar
structure is also called
(a)
Salt (b) Internal Salt
(c) External Salt (d) None of these
76. Poly
Vinyl Chloride is obtained by polymerization of Vinyl chloride at
50ºC and 10 atmosphere pressure
52ºC and 9 atmosphere pressure
54ºC and 11 atmosphere pressure
56ºC and 13 atmosphere pressure
77. The
proteins present in human body is at least
(a)
5000 different kinds (b) 6000 different kinds
(c)
7000 different kinds (d) 10,000 different kinds
78. Reaction catalyst of the biological systems
production by living cells and capable of Catalyzing chemical
reaction is known as
(a)
Proteins (b) Carbohydrate
(c) Enzyme (d) Lipids
79. Urea
Contains about
(a)
48% Nitrogen (b) 46% Nitrogen
(c)
44% Nitrogen (d) 42% Nitrogen
80. The total production of urea fertilizer in
Pakistan is
56, 20, 10 metric tons/annum
56, 25, 100 metric tons/annum
56, 23, 100 metric tons/annum
56, 30, 100 metric tons/annum
81. Which
of following is very important building material
(a)
Clinker (b) Cement
(c)
Both a and b (d) None of these
82. In
water, molecular oxygen ranges from
(a) 4 – 7 ppm (b) 4 – 9 ppm
(c) 4 – 8 ppm (d) 4 – 10 ppm
83. Dissolved
oxygen is a parameter which determines the
(a) Volume of water (b) Quantity of water
(c) Quality of water (d) Density of water
84. Higher
value of chemicals oxygen demand will indicate
(a) Less pollution (b) More pollution
(c) Equal pollution (d) Constant pollution
85. The ionization energy of sodium is
(a)
500 KJ mol-1 (b) 513 KJ mol-1
(c)
495 KJ mol-1 (d) 480 KJ mol-1
86. The repulsion due to electrons in between the
nucleus and outermost shell is called
(a)
Electron affinity (b) Ionization energy
(c) Shielding effect (d) None of these
87. Which of following is the most non-metallic
element of periodic table
(a)
Fluorine (b) Chlorine
(c) Iodine (d) Magnesium
88. The
chemical formula of calcium carbide is
(a) Ca C (b) Ca2 C
(c) Ca C2 (d) Ca2 C2
89. The
chemical formula of acetylene is
(a) C2H2 (b) C2H5
(c) C3H3 (d) C4H4
90. Lime
is often used as a
(a) Reducing Agents (b) Oxidizing Agents
(c) Dehydrating Agents (d) Catalytic agents
91. Aluminum on
heating with hydrogen forms.
(a) Aluminum hydrates (b) Aluminum hydroxide
(c) Aluminum hydrides (d) Aluminum sulphate
92. Carbon
is present in periodic table in group
(a) III A (b) IV A
(c) II A (d) I A
93. Silicon forms.
(a) Covalent bond (b) Ironic bond
(c) Co-ordinate bond (d) None of these
94. Which
of following is a powerful dehydrating agents
(a) P2O2 (b) P2O3
(c) P2O5 (d) PO3
95. The
chemical formula of phosphorus Acid is
(a) H2PO2 (b) HPO2
(c) H3 Po3 (d) None of these
96. At
ordinary Temperature, oxygen is
(a) Gas (b) Liquid
(c) Solid (d) None of these
97. The chemical formula of bleaching powder is
(a) Ca OC1 (b)
Ca2 OC2
(c) Ca OC12 (d)
Ca2 OC1
98. Which
of the following is used to fill fluorescent tubes
(a) Krypton (b) Argon
(c) xenon (d) Neon
99. In
halogen, the highest oxidizing power is possesd by:
(a) Br2 (b) F2
(c) I2 (d) CI2
100. Chromates are
salts of
(a)
HcrO4 (b) H2Cr2r7,H2CrO7
(c)
H2CrO6 (d) HcrO3
101. The chemical
formula of Potassium chromate is
(a)
K2Cr2O7 (b) K2Cr2O7
(c)
K2CrO7 (d) K2(OH)2
102. An orange red
crystalline solid is
(a)
K2CrO4 (b) K2Cr2O7
(c)
KcrO4 (d) K2Cr2O3
103.
C1
CH3
CH2 CH3 is a structural
formula of
CH
(a)
3 chloro Butane (b) 2 --- chloro Butane
(c) Iso-chloro Butane (d) Chloro Butane
104. The no of
positional isomers in Butane is
(a)
Three (b) Two
(c) Four (d) Five
105. CH3
--- CH --- = CH3 is known as
(a)
2-Butane (b) 3-Butane
(c) Butane (d) Butyne
106. CH3
– CH – CH2 is known as
o
(a) Propylene
oxide (b) Propane oxide
(c) 2-Propane (d)
Propanal
107. CH2
– C H2 is a formula of
o o
(a)
Glycerol (b) Glyoxal
(c) Glyceral (d) None
of these
108. The general formula of the alkynes is
(a)
CnH2n-2 (b) CnH2n
(c) C2n
H2n-2 (d) Cn H2n
109. Some elements of groups IIIA, IVA and VA have
properties of
(a)
Metals (b) Non-Metals
(c) Both metals and non-metals
(d) None of above
110. Which
of the following group elements react with halogen to give halides
(a) Group I, A elements (b) Group II, A elements
(c) Group III, A elements (d) Group IV, A elements
111. Boric acid is formed when borax is treated
with
(a) Dilute
HNO3 (b) Concentrated HNO3
(c) Dilute H2SO4 (d)
Concentrated H2 SO4
112. The
formula of phosphorus Trichloride is
(a) PC15 (b) PC13
(c) PC12 (d) PC14
113. Which
of the following is used to fill fluorescent tubes
(a) Krypton (b) Argon
(c) xenon (d) Neon
114. Medium carbon
steel is harder than
(a)
Mild steel (b) High carbon steel
(c) Both a and b (d) None of above
115. Pesticides
are the substances that can directly kill on
(a) Wanted organism (b) Unwanted organism
(c) Required organism (d) All of above
116. Papers
plays an important role in present day in
(a)
Welfare of country (b) Trading
(c)
Economic Development (d) None of these
117. Poly Vinyl Chloride is obtained by
polymerization of Vinyl chloride at
(a) 50ºC and 10 atmosphere pressure
52ºC and 9 atmosphere pressure
54ºC and 11 atmosphere pressure
56ºC and 13 atmosphere pressure
118. The
boiling points of the carboxylic acid are
(a) High (b) Low
(c) Constant (d) Never change
119. Formaldehyde
is prepared by mixture of methyl alcohol vapors and air over
platinised
(a)
300 ºC (b) 400 ºC
(c) 500 ºC (d) 600 ºC
120. When
alcohol is treated with PcI5 what is formed.
(a) Pc13 (b) Poc13
(c) Pc14 (d) H3PO3
Biology
121. The
percentage of chlorine in the human body is:
(a) 1% (b)
0.35%
(c) 0.15% (d) 0.05%
122. Members the one species inhabiting same
area:
(a)
Ecosystem (b) Community
(c) Biosphere (d)
Population
123. Each turn of DNA strand is:
(a) 24
Angstrom (b) 34 Angstrom
(c) 44
Angstrom (d) None of the above
124. The amount of water in the bone cells
is:
(a) 10%
(b) 20%
(c) 30%
(d) 40%
124. The optimum temperature for the enzyme of
the human body is:
(a)
36 C (b) 37 C
(c)
38 C (d) 39 C
126. The optimum pH for pepsin enzyme is:
(a)
2 (b) 4.50
(c)
5.50 (d) 6.80
127. The resolution of electron microscope is:
(a)
1 - 2A (b) 2 – 3A
(c)
2 – 4A (d) None of the
above
128. One micron meter is equal to:
(a)
10-3 (b) 10-6
(c)
10-6
(d) 10-9
129. Which of the following diseases is not
caused by virus?
(a) Polio
(b) Cholera
(c) Hepatitis (d) Influenza
130. Match pock with one of the following:
(a)
Herpes Simplex (b) Mumps
(c) Small pox (d) measles
131. The thickness of cell was of gram
negative bacteria is:
(a)
1-5nm (b) 1-7nm
(c) 8-9nm (d)
8-11nm
132. The enzymes for respiratory
metabolism in bacteria are present
in:
(a) Cell
wall (b) Cell membrane
(c)
Cytoplasmic (d) plasmid
133. In man, plasmodium first enters into
the:
(a)
RBC (b) Liver
(c) Salivary
gland (d) none of the above
134. The shape of the ciliates is maintained
by structure:
(a) Cell
wall (b) Cell membrane
(c) Pellicle (d)
Cilia
135. Which of the followings are poisonous
fungi?
(a)
Morels (b) Truffles
(c)
Toadstools (d) Rust
136. The number of species of fungi are:
(a)
80,000 (b) 90,000
(c) 100,000 (d)
110,000
137. The evolution of seed occur in:
(a) Triassic period (b) Carboniferous period
(c) Devonian period (d) Spermatophytes
138. Match seed with one of the
following:
(a) Ovary (b)
Ovule
(c) Stamen (d) carpel
139. Match “running bird” with
one of the followings:
(a)
Sparrow (b) hen
(c) kiwi (d)
parrot
140. Which of the followings is not
pouched mammal?
(a)
Opossum (b) Kangaroo
(c) Echidna (d)
Tasmania wolf
141. The G3P molecules formed during Calvin
cycle are:
(a)
3 (b) 4
(c) 5 (d) 6
142. The carbon dioxide acceptor during dark
reaction is:
(a)
Glucose (b) RuBP
(c) PGA (d)
Rubisco
143. The enzyme present in the saliva
is:
(a)
Pepsin (b) Lipase
(c) Ptyalin (d)
Lactase
144. Pepsin acts on:
(a)
Protein (b) Lipids
(c)
Carbohydrates (d) Nucleic acid
145. Asthma releases which of the following
compounds?
(a)
Epinephrine (b) Histamine
(c) Heparin (d)
Antibodies
146. Which of the followings is not
respiration?
(a)
Exchange of gases (b) Breakdown of glucose
(c) Formation of
glucose (d) Release of energy
147. The stomata are closed at temperature
(in centigrade):
(a)
35 (b) 45
(c) 25 (d) 15
148. Which of the followings is not the
importance of transpiration?
(a) Ascent
of sap (b) Transport of minerals
(c) Exchange of
gasses (d) Cooling of plant
149. Which of the following is relevant to
Imbibitions?
It is a process
in which a substance absorb water
It is a process
in which a substance swells
It is a process
in which a substance do not dissolve
All of the above
150. Which of the followings is involved cell
mediated response?
(a)
T-lymphocytes (b) Helper T-lymphocytes
(c) B-
lymphocytes (d) None of the above
151. The T lymphocytes become mature in:
(a) Thymus
gland (b) Bursa of Fabricius
(c) Bone marrow (d)
Lymph node
152. The haemoglobin can carry:
(a) One
molecule of oxygen (b) Two molecules of oxygen
(c) Three molecules
of oxygen (d) Four molecule of oxygen
153. The myoglobin can carry:
(a) One
molecule of oxygen (b) Two molecules of oxygen
(c) Three molecules
of oxygen (d) Four molecule of oxygen
154. Anorexia nervosa is abnormality in which
(a) A person
eat too much (b) A person do not eat
A person cannot
digest food (d) None of the above
155. Bulimia Nervosa is an abnormality in
which:
(a) A person
eat too much (b) A person do not eat
A person cannot
digest food (d) None of the above
156. When external solution resembles to
internal solution, it is known
as:
(a) hypertonic
environment (b) isotonic environment
(c) hypotonic
environment (d) none
157. When there is more concentrated external
environment than cell
concentration it is termed as:
(a) hypertonic
environment (b) isotonic environment
(c) hypotonic
environment (d) none
158. Xerophytes have the adaptations for
reduced rate of:
(a)
transduction (b) transformation
(c) transmutation (d)
transpiration
159. The skeleton is tough and rigid framework
of the body of animals
which provides:
(a)
protection (b) shape
(c) support (d) all
a, b, c
160. The skeleton of bird is highly modified
for:
(a)
running (b) hopping
(c) flight (d)
gliding
161. The skeleton of bird is highly modified
for:
(a)
endoskeleton (b) exoskeleton
(c) hydroskeleton (d)
hydrostatic skeleton
162. Each type of the principle type of
sensation that we can experience
e.g., pain, touch, sight, sound and so forth
is called a modality of:
(a)
regulation (b) susceptibility
(c) coordination (d)
Annelids
163. Effective drugs for Parkinson’s
disease are available such as:
(a) L-dopa (b)
dopamine
(c) serotonin (d)
epinephrine
164. Electrical potential is a measure of the
capacity to do:
(a) electric
work (b) electrical work
(c) mechanical
work (d) kinetic work
165. P 660 absorbs red light at a wave length
of 660 nm and is
converted to active:
(a) P 430 (b)
P 530
(c) P 630 (d) P 730
166. P 730 absorbs far red light at 730 nm and
is converted to:
(a) P 480 (b)
P 530
(c) P 680 (d) P 760
167. Parthenogenesis has the advantage of
accelerating the normal:
(a)
reproductive rate (b) excretory rate
(c) digestive
rate (d) respiratory rate
168. Growth of multicellular plant is divided
into:
Cell division &
Elongation
Maturation &
Differentiation
Both a &
b (d) Elongation & maturation
169. If lobster loses its pincer claw a new
claw:
(a)
regenerates (b) never develops
(c) is ready (d) none
170. Immediately after fertilization, the egg
undergoes a series of mitotic
divisions, called:
(a)
blastulation (b) cleavage
(c) splitting (d)
separation
171. The number of chromosomes in mosquito is:
(a) 3 (b) 6
(c) 9 (d) 12
172. The number of chromosomes in honeybee is:
(a) 8 (b) 16
(c) 32 (d) 64
173. The number of chromosomes in honeybee is:
(a) 5 (b) 10
(c) 15 (d) 20
174. G1
is time between the end of mitosis and initiation of DNA
synthesis, also called as:
Pre-DNA synthesis
phase.
DNA synthesis
phase
Post-DNA
synthesis phase
None
175. In anaphase I, in contrast to anaphase of
mitosis, sister chromatids
are not:
(a) joined (b)
separated
(c) curled (d)
rotated
176. in case of human cell, cell cycle is
about:
(a) 21
hours (b) 22 hours
(c) 23 hours (d) 24
hours
177. Genes for sickle – cell anaemia and
albinism make a linkage group
on human chromosome:
(a) 11 (b) 13
(c) 15 (d) 17
178. Genes that affect growth rate in human
also influence:
(a) weight (b)
height
(c) both a &
b (d) intelligence
179. Glucokinase enzyme usually converts
glucose to glucose – 6 -
phosphate in:
(a) liver (b)
pancreas
(c) stomach (d)
buccal cavity
180. It is estimated that human genome could
take an encyclopedia of
200 volumes, each with:
(a) 10
pages (b) 100 pages
(c) 1000 pages (d)
10000 pages
181. It is possible to produce millions of
somatic embryos at once in
large tanks called:
(a)
biofilters (b) biomembrane
(c) bioreactors (d)
biovat
182. A company which has now sequenced the
entire genome was
founded by:
(a) Kary B.
Mullis (b) Gottlieb Haberlantd
(c) Theodore M.
Klein (d) J. Craig Venter
183. If all members of a population are
homozygous for the same allele,
that allele is said to be:
(a) multiple
allele (b) jumping gene
(c) fixed in the
gene (d) perfect gene
184. According to Darwin the history of life is
like a:
(a) dream (b)
play
(c) hierarchy (d)
tree
185. A respiratory protein found in all aerobic
species is:
(a) Cytochrome
a (b) Cytochrome b
(c) Cytochrome c (d)
Cytochrome d
186. Hardy-Weinberg theorem, describes the
frequencies of genotypes
of non-evolving:
(a) family (b)
species
(c) population (d)
community
187. Who was famous for his essay published on
the “Principle of
population”.
(a) Mendel (b)
Malthus
(c) Cuvier (d) Lyell
188. Who was in charge of invertebrate
collection at the National History
Museum in Paris?
Linnaeus (b)
Lamarck
(c)
Wallance (d) Lyell
189. Darwin wrote a long easy on the origin of
species and natural
selection in:
(a) 1858 (b)
1809
(c) 1811 (d) 1844
190. Annual rain fall in deserts is less than:
(a) 25 to 50
cm (b) 10 to 20 cm
(c) 15 – cm (d)
20 to 40 cm
P
hysics
1._______e
2.______c
3._______c
4.______e
5._______a
6.______b
7._______c
8.______c
9._______b
10______a
11______a
12______c
13______d 14______b
15______e
16______c
17______b 18______c
19______a 20______c
21______d
22______b
23______a 24______a 25______b
26______b
27______b 28______c
29______b
30______a 31______a
32______b
33______d 34______a
35______b 36______b 37______c
38______b 39______a 40______a
41______a 42______d 43______b
44______a 45______a 46______a
47______a
48______a 49______b
50______b 51______b 52______c
53______b 54______d
55______c 56______d
57______d
58______d
59______c
60______b
C
hemistry
1.______c 2.______a
3______b
4.______a 5.______c
6______b
7.______b 8. _____a
9._____c
10 _____d 11 _____a
12_____a
13______b 14_____b
15_____b
16______b 17_____d
18_____c
19______b 20_____d
21_____b
22______c 23_____c
24_____b
25______b
26_____c 27_____a
28______c 29_____a
30_____c
31______c 32_____b
33_____a
34______b
35_____c 36_____a
37______c
38_____a 39_____b
40______b
41_____c 42_____b
43_______b 44_______b 45_______a
46_______a
47_______b 48_______a
49_______c
50_______b
51_______d
52_______b
53_______a 54_______a
55_______c
56_______a
57_______a
58_______d 59_______a 60_______b
Biology
1._______c 2. _______d 3. _______b
4. _______b 5. _______b 6. _______a
7. _______b 8. _______b 9_______b
10_______c 11_______d 12_______b
13_______b 14_______c 15_______c
16_______c 17_______c 18_______b
19_______c 20_______c 21_______d
22_______b 23_______c 24_______a
25_______b 26_______d 27_______a
28_______c 29_______b 30_______a
31_______a 32_______d 33_______a
34_______b 35_______a 36_______b
37_______a 38_______d 39_______d
40_______c 41_______a 42_______d
43_______a 44_______b 45_______d
46_______c 47_______a 48_______c
49_______a 50_______b 51_______b
52_______c 53_______d 54_______a
55_______b 56_______d 57_______a
58_______c 59_______b 60_______d
61_______c 62_______d 63_______d
64_______d 65_______a 66_______d
67_______a 68_______b 69_______c
70_______a