Biology FSc MCQs and MCAT medical admission test entrytest Pakistan Lahore

topic

BIOLOGY &
ITS MAJOR FIELDS OF SPECIALIZATION

MULTIPLE CHIOCE QUESTIONS
Each question has four options. Encircle the correct answer.

Part (A): Simple MCQs

1. Which of followings is not studied in biology?
(a) living things (b) Non-living thing
(c) both a and b (d) None of the above
2. Which of the followings is not the property of living things?
(a) Reproduction (b) response
(c) grow (d) simple form
3. The functions of the parts of the organisms are studied in:
(a) Embryology (b) Physiology
(c) Morphology (d) Anatomy
4. The study of development takes place in:
(a) Embryology (b) Physiology
(c) Morphology (d) Anatomy
5. Match anatomy with one of the followings:
(a) Physiology (b) Morphology
(c) Embryology (d) Genetics
6. The tissues are studied in:
(a) Anatomy (b) Morphology
(c) Histology (d) Physiology
7. The study of development of more advanced characters from
simple one is called:
(a) Genetics (b) Zoogeography
(c) Evolution (d) Anatomy
8. The distribution of animals in different regions is called:
(a) Histology (b) Microbiology
(c) Zoogeography (d) Parasitology
9. The relationship of organism with their environment is called:
(a) Taxonomy (b) Ecology
(c) Zoogeography (d) Social biology
10. The study of living organism present in rivers, lakes etc is called:
(a) Parasitology (b) Human biology
(c) Freshwater (d) Marine biology
11. The use of living organisms present in manufacturing and services
industries is called:
(a) Social biology (b) Human biology
(c) Biotechnology (d) None of the above
12. The communal life is studied in:
(a) Social biology (b) Human biology
(c) Biotechnology (d) None of the above
13. The percentage of nitrogen in the human body is:
(a) 1% (b) 2%
(c) 3% (d) 10%
14. The percentage of chlorine in the human body is:
(a) 1% (b) 0.35%
(c) 0.15% (d) 0.05%
15. The percentage of phosphorus in the human body is:
(a) 1% (b) 2%
(c) 3% (d) 10%
16. Bioelements present in highest concentration in the body:
(a) Carbon (b) Oxygen
(c) Nitrogen (d) Hydrogen
17. Bioelements present in the lowest concentration in the body:
(a) Calcium (b) hydrogen
(c) Phosphorus (d) carbon
18. The part of earth inhabited by living organisms is called:
(a) Ecosystem (b) Community
(c) Biosphere (d) Population
19. Members the one species inhabiting same area:
(a) Ecosystem (b) Community
(c) Biosphere (d) Population
20. Members the all species inhabiting same area:
(a) Ecosystem (b) Community
(c) Biosphere (d) Population
21. A structure within a cell which performs a specific function is
called:
(a) Tissue (b) Organelles
(c) Molecules (d) Species
22. A community with its non-living surrounding:
(a) Ecosystem (b) Species
(c) Biosphere (d) Population
23. Groups of cells is called:
(a) Tissue (b) Organ
(c) Organ system (d) Organism
24. Groups of tissues is called:
(a) Tissue (b) Organ
(c) Organ system (d) Organism
25. The lowest level of biological organization is:
(a) Cell (b) Molecule
(c) atom (d) electron
26. The highest level of biological organization is:
(a) Community (b) Ecosystem
(c) Biosphere (d) Species
27. Which of the followings is a tissue?
(a) Starch (b) nucleotide
(c) Amino acids (d) None of the above
28. Which of the followings is a tissue?
(a) Muscles (b) Arm
(c) Stomach (d) Heart
29. Which of the followings is an organ?
(a) muscles (b) xylem
(c) gland (d) stomach
30. The part of plant used for anchoring:
(a) root (b) stem
(c) Leaf (d) flower
31. The most important process at individual level:
(a) Digestion (b) Reproduction
(c) Coordination (d) None of the above
32. Which of the following characteristics of population show
migration?
(a) Gene frequency (b) Gene flow
(c) Population density (d) Population pressure
33. The affects of population in environment and other populations
are come within:
(a) Gene frequency (b) Gene flow
(c) Population density (d) Population pressure
34. The association in which one organism kill and eat the other
organism is called predation:
(a) Predation (b) Parasitism
(c) Commensalisms (d) Mutualism
35. The association in which one organism get benefit without
harming other is called:
(a) Predation (b) Parasitism
(c) Commensalisms (d) Mutualism
36. The association in which both organisms get benefit is called:
(a) Predation (b) Parasitism
(c) Commensalisms (d) Mutualism
37. Which of the following era started about 225 million years ago:
(a) Proterozoic (b) Paleozoic
(c) Mesozoic (d) Cainozoic
38. Life started in which of the following era:
(a) Proterozoic (b) Paleozoic
(c) Mesozoic (d) Cainozoic
39. In which era mammals have become dominant:
(a) Proterozoic (b) Paleozoic
(c) Mesozoic (d) Cainozoic
40. Dinosaurs become dominant in which of the following period:
(a) Triassic (b) Jurassic
(c) Cretaceous (d) None of the above
41. Which of the following is a period:
(a) Proterozoic (b) Permian
(c) Mesozoic (d) Cainozoic
42. The present era is:
(a) Proterozoic (b) Permian
(c) Mesozoic (d) Cainozoic
43. The number of species of animals are:
(a) 53.1% (b) 17.6%
(c) 19.9% (d) 9.4%
44. The number of species of Vascular plants are:
(a) 53.1% (b) 17.6%
(c) 19.9% (d) 9.4%
45. The number of species of insects are:
(a) 53.1% (b) 17.6%
(c) 19.9% (d) 9.4%
46. The tentative explanation of the observations is called:
(a) Hypothesis (b) Deduction
(c) Theory (d) Law
47. If hypothesis can not be disapproved by repeated experiments,
then it becomes a:
(a) Observation (b) Deduction
(c) Theory (d) Law
48. Match this statement with one of the following, “It remains
uniform and constant”.
(a) Hypothesis (b) Deduction
(c) Theory (d) Law
49. Which of the following technique is not used in improving
varieties of crops?
(a) Genetic engineering (b) Cloning
(c) Radiotherapy (d) Tissue culture
50. Which of the following is the best technique of controlling
diseases?
(a) Biological control (b) Biopesticides
(c) IDM (d) Non of above
51. Which of the following is used in bioremediation?
(a) Fungi (b) algae
(c) plants (d) bacteria

Part (B): Analytical and intellegent MCQs

1. Which of the followings is the characteristic of the living thing?
                    a. have specific shape
                    b. have regular shape
                    c. have organized body
                    d. none of the above
2. Which of the followings includes in homeostasis?
                  a. To maintain the shaped of the body
                  b. To maintain the balance of the body
                  c. To maintain the temperature of the body
                  d. To keep the animal away from the body
3. Your hearts starts beating before seven month of your birth. The
study of your body at this stage comes within:
(a) Morphology (b) Embryology
(c) Anatomy (d) Histology
4. A doctor is studying the contraction and relaxation of a heart. He
is studying:
(a) Morphology (b) Embryology
(c) Anatomy (d) Histology
5. Study of different parts of eye is called
(a) Histology (b) Anatomy
(c) Physiology (d) Non of above
6. A biologist removes some bones of dinosaurs from a rock. He is
studying:
(a) Morphology (b) Paleontology
(c) Ecology                             (d) Non of above
7. Darwin sys, “man has formed from monkey”. He talked about
(a) Fossil (b) Evolution
(c) Taxonomy (d) Non of above
8. Kangaroo lives in Australia but buffaloes lives in Pakistan. The
study of this distribution of animals is called
(a) Ecology (b) Environmental biology
(c) Taxonomy (d) Zoogeography
9. The study of structure of molecule of starch is called:
(a) Molecular biology (b) Biochemistry
(c) Morphology (d) None of the above
10. The study of Amoeba comes with in the branch of biology:
(a) Taxonomy (b) Ecology
(c) Microbiology (d) None of above
11. The study of affects of pollution comes within:
(a) Environmental biology (b) Taxonomy
(c) Physiology (d) Genetics
12. The study of organisms living in lake is called:
(a) Marine biology (b) Taxonomy
(c) Physiology (d) Fresh water biology
13. The study of amount salt, temperature etc of water of sea comes
within:
(a) Environmental biology (b) Taxonomy
(c) Marine biology (d) None of the above
14. The study of life cycle of plasmodium comes within:
(a) Parasitology (b) Taxonomy
(c) Physiology (d) None of the above
15. The grouping of men is:
(a) Human biology (b) Social biology
(c) Biotechnology (d) None of above
16. The use of yeast in banking industry, and use of bacteria for
making yogurt from milk are studied in:
(a) Human biology (b) Social biology
(c) Biotechnology (d) None of above
17. A biologist studies all structure and functions of different parts
of a man. His work is included in branch of biology called:
(a) Human biology (b) Social biology
(c) Biotechnology (d) None of above
18. Biological organization means:
           a. Study of different organisms
           b. Study of different branches of biology
           c. Study of All the subjects of sciences
           d. Study of biology at different levels
19. Trace elements are those:
        a.Which are necessary for the organisms
        b.Which are present in a very small quantity in the body
        c.Which are required in small quantity in the body.
        d.Which do not require to body.
20. Common bio elements are:
         a.Calcium, phosphorus and carbon
         b.Nitrogen, oxygen and hydrogen
        c.Calcium, copper and carbon
         d.  a) and (b)
21. Protoplasm is a:
(a) second name of cell (b) second name of cytoplasm
(c) second name of Nucleolus(d) (b) and (c)
22. Bioelements are those elements:
             a.Which are eaten by the organisms
             b.Which are formed within the organisms
             c.Which are used in the chemical compounds in the organisms
             d.Which are released by the organisms
23. Which statement is not correct about biosphere:
(a) It is present on the earth (b) It is present in the oceans
(c) It is present in the river (d) It is present in the space.
24. Ecosystem is composed of:
(a) a community (b) a population
(c) a species (d) none of the above
25. Which of the followings is an organ system?
(a) oesophagus (b) Stomach
(c) intestine (d) All (a) and (c)
26. Which one of the followings is an organ?
(a) Cornea (b) Retina
(c) Eye (d) Eye muscles
27. Which of the followings is a tissue?
(a) Heart (b) stomach
(c) bone (d) Liver
28. Skin is:
(a) an organ (b) a tissue
(c) an organ system (d) None of all
29. ATP is a nucleotide. It is a:
(a) Micromolecules (b) Macromolecule
(c) Microelement (d) Microelement
30. Carbon dioxide is a compound of carbon. It is:
(a) an inorganic compound (b) an organic compound
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) none of the above
31. Nucleus is:
(a) an organelles (b) Protoplasm
(c) cytoplasm (d) None of the above
32. A prokaryotic cell:
        a.has well defined nucleus
        b.is without nucleus and DNA
        c.is without nucleus but DNA is present
        d.None of above
33. A eukaryotic cell:
(a) Without well defined nucleus (b) is without nucleus and DNA
(c) is with nucleus but DNA is absent(d) has both nucleus and DNA
34. Number of persons living in Multan is called
(a) Population of Multan (b) Community of Multan
(c) Ecosystem of Multan (d) None of above
35. Community of Lahore includes:
          a.All the humans living in Lahore
          b.All the organisms living in Lahore
          c.All the animals living in Lahore
          d.All the plants in Lahore.
36. Gene frequency mean:
           a.Number of genes present in an organism
           b.Number of genes present in a population
            c.Number of genes present in a community
           d.None of above
37. An island in an sea is a:
(a) a population (b) Simple community
(c) complex community (d) None of the above
38. A dog kills a rabbit
(a) Rabbit is a predator (b) Dog is a prey
(c) Dog is a predator (d) Both are predator
39. Which one of the following is a biome:
(a) An ocean (b) A river
(c) Conifer forest (d) A garden
40. The fossils present in the older layer of a rock could be:
Ancestor of the fossils present in the younger sediments
Have equal age as that of younger sediments
Offspring of the younger sediment
None of the above
41. The older sediments in a rock have:
         a.Smaller amount of radioactive substance than the younger one
         b.Larger amount of radioactive substance than the younger one
         c.Equal amount of radioactive substance with the younger one
         d.Do not have radioactive substance at all
42. We are now living in:
(a) Proterozoic era (b) Paleozoic era
(c) Mesozoic era (d) Coenozoic era
43. Phyletic lineage means:
(a) 2000 Million years ago (b) 3000 Million years age
(c) 4000 Million years age (d) 5000 Million years age
44. Phyletic lineage means:
           a.All the organisms have same ancestor and they show similarities.
           b.All the organisms have different ancestor but they show certain
                                     Similarities
            c.All the organisms have same ancestor but they do not show
              Similarities
              d.  None of the above
45. Total number of species on the earth is:
(a) 2.5 Millions (b) 2 Millions
(c) 3.5 Millions (d) 1.5 Millions
46. The most abundant group on the earth is:
(a) Mammals (b) Birds
(c) Insects (d) Reptiles
47. Which group of the followings has lowest number of species?
(a) Vascular plants (b) Animals
(c) Insects (d) Algae, protozoa and Prokaryotes
48. Measurement of temperature is:
(a) Quantitative (b) Qualitative observation
(c) None of the above
49. Mammals have hairs on their bodies. Dog also have hairs on its
body. So dog is also a mammal. It is:
(a) Deductive reasoning (b) Inductive reasoning
(c) None of the above
50. Inductive reason moves from:
(a) Known towards unknown (b) Unknown towards known
(c) Known towards known (d) none of the above
51. Deductive reasoning moves from:
(a) Known towards unknown (b) Unknown towards known
(c) Known towards known (d) none of the above
52. A theory is formed when:
         A hypothesis is proved by experiments
           Many deduction can be made from the same hypothesis
        Many new hypothesis produce same results
            None of the above
53. A productive theory is that:
           Which can produce many new theories
          Which can suggest new hypothesis
              Which gives rise biological law
           None of the above
54. A theory becomes a scientific law when:
          When none of the scientists challenge it
             When many scientist try to disprove it, but failed
            When no new hypothesis could be made from the theory
                   None of the above
55. A scientific law:
                   Amendment can be made in it when required
                   Only minor changes can be made in a scientific law
                   Only the originator of the law can make changes in it
                   A scientific law remains uniform and constant in science.
56. A transgenic plant is:
          a plant composed of cells of two different plants
          a plant with foreign DNA
          a plant which transfer its DNA to other plants
          None of the above
57. What processes of the followings does come within the genetic
engineering
                Production of a plant by vegetative progression
               Addition of DNA into a plant
                Growing of a plant from its roots
                Sowing of seed in soil
58. Tissue culture is a technique in which
                plants are grown from roots
                Plants are grown from the cuttings of  stems
                Plants are grown from groups of cells
                 Plants are grown from seed.
59. The biological control includes
                  Killing of pests by using insects traps
                  Use of pesticides for killing the pests
                  Use of insects for killing the pests
                   None of the above
60. Integrated pest management technique includes:
Use of local techniques to kill the pest
Use of pesticides killing the pest
Use of biopesticides or living organism for killing the insects
Use of all above techniques
61. One of the following processes take place during hydroponics
culture technique is:
Plants are grown in green house
Plants are grown in arid land
Plants are grown in simple water
Plants are grown in aerated water
62. Which one of the following is Pasteurization?
Boiling of water for removing salts from it
Boiling of water for killing germs in it.
Boiling Milk for removing extra water from it.
Boiling of milk for killing germs in it.
63. Which one of the following is preventive measure?
Using medicines
Using antibiotics
Living in clean environment
Regular examination by a doctor
64. AIDS spread through one of the following methods:
Breathing near AIDS patient
Sexual relations after marriage
Sexual relations without marriage
Drinking contaminated water of the AIDS patient
65. First vaccine was developed by Edward Jenner from the pus of:
a health cow
a cow affected from small pox
s cow affected from chicken pox
a cow affected from cow pox
66. Antibiotics are used against:
(a) Against viruses (b) Against any germ
(c) Hepatitis (d) Against fungi
67. Radiotherapy is used against:
(a) cancer (b) AIDS
(c) Hepatitis (d) None of the above
68. Gene therapy is a technique in which:
Genes are removed from a body
Genes are inserted into the body
Genes are of the body are repaired
None of the above
69. Integrated disease management means:
Use of preventive measures
Use of traditional methods to control a disease
Use of medicines to control a disease
All above methods
70. Which one of the followings is a pollutant?
(a) Oxygen (b) Sodium
(c) Potassium (d) Chromium
71. Bioremediation is process in which:
Organisms are used to cure the diseases
Organisms are used to kill the pest
Organisms are used to treat the pollutants
None of the above
72. The number of Indus dolphins has reduced in the Indus River. So
the Indus dolphin is:
(a) Extinct specie (b) Endangered species
(c) Protected species (d) None of the above
73. A clone is a identical copy of the organism:
(a) In which clone is produced (b) Whose egg is taken
(c) Whose nucleus is taken (d) None of the above
74. Cloning has eugenic aims. These aims are
To produce an organism with a large number of genes
To produce an organism with all best types of genes
To produce an organism with all healthy genes
To produce an organism without its defective genes
75. Which of following is not a Phyletic lineage?
Evolution of birds from reptiles
Evolution of mammals from reptiles
Evolution of amphibians from reptiles
None of the above
76. Who is the parent of a clone?
(a) Whose nucleus is taken (b) Whose egg is taken
(c) In which egg is planted (d) (a) and (b)

Answers
Part (A) 

1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (b) 6. (c)

7. (c) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10.(c) 11.(c) 12.(c)]

13.(c) 14. (c) 15.(a) 16.(b) 17.(c) 18.(c)

19.(d) 20.(b) 21.(b) 22.(a) 23.(a) 24.(b)

25.(d) 26.(c) 27.(a) 28.(a) 29.(d) 30.(a)

31.(c) 32.(b) 33.(d) 34.(a) 35.(c) 36.(d)

37.(c) 38.(a) 39.(d) 40.(b) 41.(b) 42.(d)

43.(c) 44.(b) 45.(a) 46.(a) 47.(c) 48.(d)

49.(c) 50.(c) 51.(b)

Answers
Part (B)

1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (b) 6. (b)

7. (b) 8. (d) 9. (a) 10.(c) 11.(a) 12.(d)

13.(c) 14.(a) 15.(b) 16.(c) 17.(a) 18.(d)

19.(b) 20.(d) 21.(d) 22.(c) 23.(d) 24.(d)

25.(d) 26.(c) 27.(c) 28.(a) 29.(a) 30.(a)

31.(a) 32.(c) 33.(d) 34.(a) 35.(b) 36.(b)

37.(b) 38.(c) 39.(c) 40.(a) 41.(a) 42.(d)

43.(b) 44.(a) 45.(a) 46.(c) 47.(d) 48.(a)

49.(a) 50.(b) 51.(a) 52.(c) 53.(b) 54.(b)

55.(d) 56.(b) 57.(b) 58.(c) 59.(c) 60.(d)

61.(d) 62.(d) 63.(c) 64.(c) 65.(d) 66.(c)

67. (a) 68.(c) 69.(d) 70.(d) 71.(c) 72.(b)

73.(c) 74.(b) 75.(c0 76.(a)

Complete 

DEPARTMENT OF COMPUTE SCIENCE

UNIVERSITY OF THE PUNJAB
Admission Test 1990

INSTRUCTIONS
1. This test consists of three sections. Each section must be attempted only in its allotted time. Sections 1 and 2 have 30 questions each, while Section 3 has 25 question.

2. There will be negative making in all sections. Wrong answers will decrease your score. If more than one answer is marked for a question, it will be counted as a wrong answer.

3. Please write your test Roll Number along with your name and signature on top of the answer sheet when directed to do so. The test Roll Number is the number which was handwritten and encircled on your form.

4. The use of Calculators is absolutely prohibited. You may use the test booklet for any rough work that you want to do.

5. Answers must be marked on the answer sheet only.
Answers marked on the test booklet will not be graded

6. Answers must be marked by shading the area between the pair of brackets enclosing your choice. For example, if you decide that choice (c) is the correct answer, you would mark your answer as shown below.
(a) (b) (.) (d) (e)
In case you want to correct your answer, please place a clear cross on the first selection and shade your new selection as shown above

DEPARTMENT OF COMPUTE SCIENCE
UNIVERSITY OF THE PUNJAB
Admission Test
TEST 1
TIME: 20 MINUTES
The first test is called the Series test because each question consists of a series of
numbers or letters which are related by a certain rule. You are to find the correct rule and hereby complete the series. One of the answers indicated with the question is the correct one.

Example 1:
3 6 9 12 ?
(a) 19 (b) 20 (c) 15 (d) 17 (e) 23
Example 2:
AY BX CW DV ?
(a) FU (b) EV (c) EU (d) DX (e) GX

TEST 1 TIME 20 MINUTES
Q.1 2 3 5 8 13 ?
(a) 19 (b) 20 (c) 21 (d) 22 (e) 23

Q.2 4 3 6 7 8 ?
(a) 11 (b) 16 (c) 13 (d) 18 (e) 15

Q.4 56 31 15 6 2 ?
(a) -2 (b) 1 (c) 0 (d) -1 (e) 2

Q.5 4 5 3 9 10 ?
(a) 11 (b) 6 (c) 12 (d) 7 (e) 8

Q.6 5 10 17 26 37 ?
(a) 48 (b) 50 (c) 68 (d) 61 (e) 57

Q.7 58 57 53 44 28 ?
(a) 3 (b) 11 (c) 21 (d) 26 (d) 27

Q.8 4 5 7 11 19 ?
(a) 20 (b) 23 (c) 27 (d) 32 (e) 35

Q.9 2 8 20 44 92 ?
(a) 125 (b) 143 (c) 162 (d) 172 (e) 188

Q.10 4 7 11 14 18 ?
(a) 17 (b) 19 (c) 21 (d) 23 (e) 27

Q.11 5 25 8 19 11 ?
(a) 34 (b) 25 (c) 21 (d) 31 (e) 11

Q.12 31 19 12 7 5 ?
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5 (e) 6

Q.13 63 31 15 7 3 ?
(a) 3 (b) 0 (c) 1 (d) 2 (e) 5

Q.14 6 8 12 20 36 ?
(a) 56 (b) 57 (c) 62 (d) 68 (e) 72

Q.15 1 1 2 6 24 ?
(a) 80 (b) 120 (c) 132 (d) 144 (e) 156

Q.16 0 2 8 26 80 ?
(a) 196 (b) 2110 (c) 240 (d) 216 (e) 242

Q.17 1 16 49 100 169 ?
(a) 196 (b) 210 (c) 240 (d) 256 (e) 32


Q.18 24 72 36 108 54 ?
(a) 16 (b) 18 (c) 22 (d) 28 (e) 32

Q.19 2 3 6 2 3 ?
(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 7 (e) 8

Q.20 5 17 31 67 115 ?
(a) 175 (b) 170 (c) 165 (d) 160 (e) 155

Q.21 Z EW HT ?
(a) NN (b) MN (c) NO (d) MP (e) ON

Q.22 XYZ WVV VSR UPN ?
(a)SNJ (b)TMJ (c)SMJ (d)TNL (e)TMK

Q.23 AZ DX HU MZ ?
(a) TM (b) SM (c) TL (d) RL (e) SL

Q.24 EZZ GWX JTU NQQ ?
(a) SML (b) SM (c) TL (d) RL (e) SL

Q.25 16CW 4ES 810 20K ?
(a) 4WG (b) 4UC (c) 6WD (d) SNL (e) 8YF

Q.26 BCDE CEGI DGJM EIMQ ?
(a) FKQV FKPW GPOU GOPV FKPU

Q.27 U12Y S13W P11T L14P ?
(a)G 11 l (b) G 10K (c) H91 (d) l10K (e) 18J

Q.28 ZYX WUT TQO QMJ ?
(a) NJE (b) WUT (c) TQO (d) QMJ (e) MIE

Q.29 AYBV GSFR MMJN SGNJ ?
(a)XAOG (b)WBSG (c)XBOE (d)YCRF (e)YARF

Q.30 ZE500 XH419 UL370 QQ345?
(a)KX240 (b)LX240 (c)LW336 (d)MV336 (e)MW320

DEPARTMENT OF COMPUTE SCIENCE

UNIVERSITY OF THE PUNJAB
Admission Test 1990

INSTRUCTIONS
1. This test consists of three sections. Each section must be attempted only in its allotted time. Sections 1 and 2 have 30 questions each, while Section 3 has 25 question.

2. There will be negative making in all sections. Wrong answers will decrease your score. If more than one answer is marked for a question, it will be counted as a wrong answer.

3. Please write your test Roll Number along with your name and signature on top of the answer sheet when directed to do so. The test Roll Number is the number which was handwritten and encircled on your form.

4. The use of Calculators is absolutely prohibited. You may use the test booklet for any rough work that you want to do.

5. Answers must be marked on the answer sheet only.
Answers marked on the test booklet will not be graded

6. Answers must be marked by shading the area between the pair of brackets enclosing your choice. For example, if you decide that choice (c) is the correct answer, you would mark your answer as shown below.
(a) (b) (.) (d) (e)
In case you want to correct your answer, please place a clear cross on the first selection and shade your new selection as shown above

DEPARTMENT OF COMPUTE SCIENCE
UNIVERSITY OF THE PUNJAB
Admission Test
TEST 1
TIME: 20 MINUTES
The first test is called the Series test because each question consists of a series of
numbers or letters which are related by a certain rule. You are to find the correct rule and hereby complete the series. One of the answers indicated with the question is the correct one.

Example 1:
3 6 9 12 ?
(a) 19 (b) 20 (c) 15 (d) 17 (e) 23
Example 2:
AY BX CW DV ?
(a) FU (b) EV (c) EU (d) DX (e) GX

TEST 1 TIME 20 MINUTES
Q.1 2 3 5 8 13 ?
(a) 19 (b) 20 (c) 21 (d) 22 (e) 23

Q.2 4 3 6 7 8 ?
(a) 11 (b) 16 (c) 13 (d) 18 (e) 15

Q.4 56 31 15 6 2 ?
(a) -2 (b) 1 (c) 0 (d) -1 (e) 2

Q.5 4 5 3 9 10 ?
(a) 11 (b) 6 (c) 12 (d) 7 (e) 8

Q.6 5 10 17 26 37 ?
(a) 48 (b) 50 (c) 68 (d) 61 (e) 57

Q.7 58 57 53 44 28 ?
(a) 3 (b) 11 (c) 21 (d) 26 (d) 27

Q.8 4 5 7 11 19 ?
(a) 20 (b) 23 (c) 27 (d) 32 (e) 35

Q.9 2 8 20 44 92 ?
(a) 125 (b) 143 (c) 162 (d) 172 (e) 188

Q.10 4 7 11 14 18 ?
(a) 17 (b) 19 (c) 21 (d) 23 (e) 27

Q.11 5 25 8 19 11 ?
(a) 34 (b) 25 (c) 21 (d) 31 (e) 11

Q.12 31 19 12 7 5 ?
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5 (e) 6

Q.13 63 31 15 7 3 ?
(a) 3 (b) 0 (c) 1 (d) 2 (e) 5

Q.14 6 8 12 20 36 ?
(a) 56 (b) 57 (c) 62 (d) 68 (e) 72

Q.15 1 1 2 6 24 ?
(a) 80 (b) 120 (c) 132 (d) 144 (e) 156

Q.16 0 2 8 26 80 ?
(a) 196 (b) 2110 (c) 240 (d) 216 (e) 242

Q.17 1 16 49 100 169 ?
(a) 196 (b) 210 (c) 240 (d) 256 (e) 32


Q.18 24 72 36 108 54 ?
(a) 16 (b) 18 (c) 22 (d) 28 (e) 32

Q.19 2 3 6 2 3 ?
(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 7 (e) 8

Q.20 5 17 31 67 115 ?
(a) 175 (b) 170 (c) 165 (d) 160 (e) 155

Q.21 Z EW HT ?
(a) NN (b) MN (c) NO (d) MP (e) ON

Q.22 XYZ WVV VSR UPN ?
(a)SNJ (b)TMJ (c)SMJ (d)TNL (e)TMK

Q.23 AZ DX HU MZ ?
(a) TM (b) SM (c) TL (d) RL (e) SL

Q.24 EZZ GWX JTU NQQ ?
(a) SML (b) SM (c) TL (d) RL (e) SL

Q.25 16CW 4ES 810 20K ?
(a) 4WG (b) 4UC (c) 6WD (d) SNL (e) 8YF

Q.26 BCDE CEGI DGJM EIMQ ?
(a) FKQV FKPW GPOU GOPV FKPU

Q.27 U12Y S13W P11T L14P ?
(a)G 11 l (b) G 10K (c) H91 (d) l10K (e) 18J

Q.28 ZYX WUT TQO QMJ ?
(a) NJE (b) WUT (c) TQO (d) QMJ (e) MIE

Q.29 AYBV GSFR MMJN SGNJ ?
(a)XAOG (b)WBSG (c)XBOE (d)YCRF (e)YARF

Q.30 ZE500 XH419 UL370 QQ345?
(a)KX240 (b)LX240 (c)LW336 (d)MV336 (e)MW320
n a position of power
Robert is a good friend of Bush conclude from Robert’s statement that
Robert heard Bush telling a lie
Q.2 “Only rich people buy cars”
We conclude from this statement that:
No rich person buys a truck
Anyone who buys a car must be rich
At least one rich person will buy a car
All poor people are without cars
Some poor people buy cars
Q.3 “The doctor has never lost a patient”
This statement would seem very foolish if the patient knew that the doctor
Is a very capable and qualified person
Has just started practicing medicine
Has seen more patients than any other doctor
Can handle patients with many different diseases
Has spent more than six years in medical college and post-graduation.
Questions 4-7 relate to the following statements:-
All the Steel Rods in a concrete roof are either parallel or perpendicular to one another. The Rods are all straight.
Rods R1, R2, R3, R4 and R5 are parallel to one another
Rods R6, R7, R8, R9, R10, R11 and R12 are parallel to one another.
Rod R1 is one foot East of Rod R2.
Rod R2 is half a foot West of Rod R3
Rod R4 is one foot West of Rod R5
Rod R6 is half a foot South of Rod R7
Rod R8 is one foot North of Rod R9.
Rod R10 is half a foot North of Rod R11.
Rod R10 is one foot South of Rod R12
Q.4 Which of the following is necessarily true?
Rod R8 is one foot North of Rod R11.
Rod R4 is two feet West of Rod R2
Rod R5 and Rod R2 intersect.
Rod R12 is one and a half feet north of Rod R11
Rod R4 is at least two feet West of Rod R1
Q.5 If Rod R5 is somewhere between Rods R2 and R3, then which of the following is false
Rod R4 is less than one foot from Rod R2
Rod R3 is less than one and a half feet from Rod R4
Rod R5 is less than one foot from Rod R1
The distance from Rod R5 to Rod R2 added to the distance from Rod R5 Rod R3 is half a feet
Rod R4 is two feet West of Rod R1
Q.6 Which of the following possibilities would make two Rods coincide?
If Rod R11 is half a foot North of Rod R8
If Rod R4 is half a foot East of Rod R1
If Rod R8 is half a foot North of Rod R 10
If Rod R3 is one foot West of Rod R4
If Rods R5 and R2 are half a foot apart or Rods R7 and R9 are half a foot apart.
Q.7 If Rod X is parallel to Rod R8 and Rod X is half a foot South of Rod R9 and one foot North of Rod R6, which two Rods would be half a foot apart?
R8 and X
X and R7
R9 and R6
R9 and R7
R8 and R6
Q.8 A paragraph from a book on wildlife states: “The eagle is a bird that lives only in inland mountains.
When removed from this habitat, he dies. The eagle cannot survive in captivity: several zoo keepers will attest to this fact. These birds make excellent pets, and I have photographed many of them in my contact with tribes living on the plains near the coast”
The author is probably:
(a) A liar (b) An explorer (c) A novelist
(d) A zoologist (e) An amateur photographer
Q.9 If nobody likes nobody, which of the following must be true?
1. Everybody likes somebody
2. Somebody likes somebody
3. Nobody likes anybody
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 3 only (d) 1 and 2 only (e) 2 and 3 only
Questions 10-13 relate to the following statements:
The top six students in the intermediate examination are to be given medals according to their positions inadvertently they have been made to stand in a queue in the wrong order by one of the organizers of the ceremony. As a result of the error, the following situation exists:
1. Any two students who ordinarily would be adjacent are no longer so
2. Exactly one of the students is currently occupying his/her correct position in the queue.
3. Student 1 is standing after student 6, and exactly one other student separates them.
4. Student 4 is not last.
5. Student 5 occurs before student 2.

Q.10 Which of the following must be false?
Student 3 comes before student 2
Student 3 comes before student 4
Student 5 comes after student 1
Student 6 is second in order
Student 3 occurs last
Q.11 Which student cannot occur among the last three in the queue?
(a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5 (e) 6

Q.12 Which students might be in their correct positions?
(a) 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 5 (c) 2 and 4 (d) 4 and 5 (e) 3 and 5

Q.13 Which of the following could possibly be true?
1. Student 6 comes after student 2
2. Student 4 comes after student 5
3. Student 6 comes after student 4
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only

Q.14 If Reema was mad, then Saima was mad and vice versa.
If neither Reema nor Saima were mad. Then you cannot believe Sheikh Sahib
You can believe Sheikh Sahib
Considering the above statements which of the following could not be true:
Both Reema and Saima were mad
Reema was mad but Saima was not
Saima was mad but Reema was not
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 3 only (d) 1 and 2 only
(e) 2 and 3

Q.15 (i) All king size cigarettes cause cancer
(ii) “Silver Bark” is the name of a new brand of king-size cigarettes
(iii) We can conclude from the above statements that
“Silver Bark” smokers may have cancer
“Silver Bark” causes cancer
Anyone with cancer smokes “Silver Bark”
Nobody who smokes regular cigarettes gets cancer
People with cancer prefer king-size cigarettes over regular cigarettes
Question 16-18 relate to the following statements:
1. An insurance company must insure four cars.
2. The cars that can be chosen are Toyota, Nissan, Honda, BMW or a Mercedes.
3. The company must insure either a BMW or a Mercedes, but no both.
4. The company cannot insure a Honda and a Charade together.




Q.16 If the insurance company insures BMW, which other car(s) must insure?
must it insure?
1. Charade
2. Nissan
3. Honda
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 3 only (d) 1 and 2 only
(e) 2 and 3 only

Q.17 How many different combinations of cars are available for the insurance company to choose from?
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5 (e) more than 5

Q.18 Which car(s) must the insurance company insure?
1. Toyota
2. Nissan
3. Honda
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 3 only (d) 1 and 2 only
(e) 1.2 and 3
Q.19 All people that have guns are dangerous
All people either dangerous or have guns
Given the above assumptions, which of the following sentence(s) must be false?
Sentence(s) must be false?
1. All people that are dangerous have guns
2. Some people are not dangerous
3. There are people with guns that are not dangerous
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only (e) 1,2 and 3

Q.20 It is not true that both Mars and Venus will be explored by Space Research Ltd.
Which of the following is most nearly equivalent to the above claim?
Either Mars or Venus will be explored by Space Research Ltd.
Neither Mars or Venus will be explored by Space Research Ltd.
Mars and Venus will be explored by Space Research Ltd.
Mars will be explored by Space Research Ltd. Only if Venus is.
Either Mars or Venus will not be explored by Space Research Ltd.
Q.21 Rashid says: “All Lahories enjoy chicken tikkas”
Jamil says: “I must disagree. I have known some Lahories who love haleem”
Jamil’s response shows that he has interpreted Rashid’s remarks to mean that:
Lahories do not like haleem
Only Lahories eat haleem
Most people cannot appreciate good chicken tikkas
Only Lahories enjoy chicken tikkas
Lahories enjoy only chicken tikkas
Questions 22-25 relate to the following statements:
There are six grades that lead from the post of Section Officer to the post of Secretary. No two people can be in the same grade.
Mr. Ali is two grades below Mr. Chaudhry
Mr. Bashir is in a grade next to Mr. Daood
Only one grade is vacant (with no one occupying that grade)
Denote the first grade by grade 1, the second grade by grade 2, etc. the highest being grade 6.
Q.22 If Mr. Ali is in the first grade which of the following is true?
Mr. Bashir is in the second grade
Mr. Chaudhry is in the fourth grade
A person, Mr. Ejaz, could be in the third grade
Mr. Daood is in a higher grade than Mr. Chaudhry
A person Mr. Ejaz could be in the fifth grade
Q.23 If Mr. Ejaz was in the third grade and Mr. Bashir was in a higher grade than Mr. Ejaz, which grade must be vacant?
(a) Grade 1 (b) Grade 2 (c) Grade 4 (d) Grade 5 (e) Grade 6

Q.24 If Mr. Bahsir was in grade 1, which grade could Mr. Ali be in?
(a) 2 and 3 only (b) 3 and 5 only (c) 3 and 4 ony
(d) 4 and 5 only (e) 2 and 4 only

Q.25 If there are two grades between the grade that Mr. Ali was in and the grade that Mr. Bashir was in, and Mr. Ali was in a higher grade than Mr. Daood, Mr. Ali must be in grade:
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5 (e) 6

SOLUTION OF 93
Test 1
1. B Next prime number is added
2. D Alternatively 1 is added
3. B Square of number is deducted each time
4. A Deduct square of natural no
5. E Alter each + 1.2 is subtracted
6. B Odd number is added
7. A Square of 5 is subtracted
8. E Increasing power of 2 is added
9. E Difference between last two is doubled and added
10. C Alternatively 3 Is Added
11. D 6 Is Subtracted From The Second Last
12. A Difference Of Second Last & Last
13. C Decreasing Power Of 2 Is Subtracted
14. D Increasing Power Of 2 Is Added
15. B Each Value is Multiplied By N and Here N = 5
16. E Difference Of Last And 2nd Last Is Multiplied With 3 And Added To Last    Value
17. D 3 Is Added To Square Root Of Last & Then Square It
18. 162 Multiply By 3
19. C After Each +1 Multiply By 2
20. A 60 Is Added
21. A First Letter is Advanced 3 Character And last is Brought Back 3 Characters.
22. B Subtract 1 From First, 3 From Second And 4 From Third Character
23. E Add N+1 To First Character And Deduct N-1 From Last
24. D Add N+1 To First Character And Deduct N+1 From Last
25. A First Divide By 4 And Then Add 2. Add To The Second Character And Deduct 4 From The Last Character.
26. B Add 1 To First, 2 To Second, 3 To Third And 4 To Fourth.
27. B Subtract 1 More Than The Difference Of Last And 2nd Last.
28. D Deduct 3 From First, 4 From Second And 5 From Third
29. E Add 6 To First, Deduct 6 From Second, Add 4 To Third Deduct 4 From Fourth.
30. C Deduct 5,Add 6 And Deduct Square Of Odd Number
Test 2
Q.1 Original Rs. = D
Spent for shire = 20/100 * D = D/5
Left with Rs = D – D/5 = 4D / 5
Spent for shoes = 25/100 * 4D/5 = D/5
Total Amount Spent  (i) & (ii) = D/5 = D/5
%age = (2D/5)  * 100 = 40 Ans.
                D
Q.2 Total time taken by A.B.C to drive 300 miles:
Perimeter = (x + 3x) * 2 = 8x
Answer should be odd and divisible by 8. 120 is divisible by 8 but its answer is not even so C is the answer.
Q.3 Total time taken by A.B.C to drive 300 miles:
= 100/40 + 100/50 + 100/60
= (150+120+100) / 60
= 370/60 = 37/6 Hours
Fraction of time taken by A = (100/40)
   37/6
Q.4 Let the number of men in the student = x
No of women = 4 * x
After admission of 140 men, no. become = x + 140
Now the ratio is  = (x + 140/4x             = 2/3
3(x + 140) = 3 * 4x = 8x or 3x + 42 = 8x
5x = 420 x = 420 / 5 = 84
Size of the body after admission of 140 students.
= x + 140 + 4x = 5 * 84 + 140
= 420 + 140 = 560 Ans.
Q.5 Speed of the boy = 3 Km / hrs
Speed of the truck     = 40 km / hrs
     Time taken by truck to cover one Km = 60/40
        = 3/2 min
Time taken by the boy to cover 1 km        = 60/3        
                = 20 min.
Time difference = 20 – 3/2                 = 18.5 ,min
Q.6 Area of the original warehouse                 = 10000 mts.
One side of the “  “  “ = Sq. root of 10000 = 100 mts.
Increased area of the warehouse                = 10000 mts.
Since one side of the warehouse remains unchanged i.e.
100 mts. The extension therefore = 5000 Sq. Mt.
Since one side of the warehouse remains unchanged i.e.
100 mts. The extension therefore = 5000/100 = 50 Mt.
Q.7 Setting Time = 8:30 a.m
Check time = 6: 30p.m.  
Interval therefore = 8.30 – 6:30 = 10 hrs
Loss = 2 * 60/5 = 24 sec
Loss for the total interval i.e. 10 hrs. = 24 * 10
        = 240 sec
        = 240/60 = 4 min.
Q.8 Salt in 4 liter solution         = 4 * 50/100 = 2L
Then 1.5 liter solution contains salt   = 1.5 * 50/100
Remaining water after spillage         = 4 – 1.5 = 2.5 L
Remaining salt after spillage         = 2 – 75 = 1.25 L
Salt Percentage after filling the jug   = (1.25 / 5) * 100
                             = 25 %
Q.9 Suppose the total number of hats in the box = x
No of Brown hats = ¼ * x
Their sum = 3*100 = 300
Sum of the remaining integers = 300 – 120
                                                 = 180
The second largest integer can therefore be:
                                                 = 120 – 1 = 119
Hence the least possible value of the smallest:
                                                        = 180 – 119 = 61


Q.10 Suppose the total number of hats in the box = x
No of Brown hats = ¼ * x
No of hats sold by the hat maker – 2x/3
Unsold = x/3
4/5 of the brown hats = x/4 * 4/5 = x/20
Unsold brown hats = x/4 – x/5 = x/20
Fraction of the unsold Brown hats = (x/20)
               x/3
           =  3/20
Q.11 Let the original price of 5 tickets         = x Rs.
Price of three tickets          = x Rs.
At special sale prince of 5 tickets       = 3x/5 (given)
Amount saved for purchase of 5 tickets = x – 3x/5
             = 2x/5
%age of saving       = 2x/5                  
            (x*100)  
= (2/5) * 100 = 40
Q.12 Tehmina can finish the job independently in 12 hrs
Asma “ “ “ “ “ “ “ “ “ “ “                      9   hrs
Left over work by Tehmina = 12 – 8 = 4 hrs job But Asma’s work / hr as compared to Tehmina.
Asma will finish the remaining work in = 4*

Q.13 No of red chips = 9
“ green      “     = 5
Total no of chips –9+7+5 – 21
No. of chips in each stock = 21/3 = 7
Therefore maximum 5 red chips can be in any one stack because 1 other color chips should be also there.
C is the Answer
Q.14 Distance covered by foot = 1/5
Distance covered by bus = 2/3
Let the total distance = x
Remaining distance i.e. covered by car:
    = x – x/5 – 2x/3 = 8 (given)
(15x – 3x – 10x) / 15 = 8 km
   solving equation
x = 60 km
Q.15 Down payment = Rs. 75
Cost of set of books    = 400 Rs.
Borrowed amount       = 400 – 75 = 325 Rs.
The payment paid (including interest) = 23 * 16 +9
= 377
Interest paid = 377 – 325 = 52 Rs.
(Amount of interest paid) * 100 = 52 /325*100
  (Amount borrowed)
= 16 %
Q.16 Suppose the quantity = x
 Purchase price = x/3 * 0.50 = x/6
Sale price = x/4 * 1 = x/4
  Profit = x/4 – x/6 = 10 (given)
Solving equ.
x = 120
Q.17 No of divisible by 3 but between 100 – 110 are 120, 105 & 108 is not possible because it does not fulfill the condition
Let it be 102 & 2 = 104 but this divisible 4 * no left over is there therefore only 15 + 2 = 107 is the number of cards that fulfills all the conditional.
Q.18 Total no. of employees = 1000
No. of women = 52/100 *100
= 520
No. of women working in research  520 * 41/100
= 208
No. of men employees = 1000 – 520 = 480
No. of employee (men & women) working in research.
= 40/100 * 1000 = 400
No. of men working in research = 400 – 208 = 192
No. of men not “  “  “  “  “   “     = 480 – 192 = 288
Q.19 No. of total question = 50
Suppose the correct Ans. x number
Incorrect answer = 50 – x
x – ( 50 – x) 2 = 38 or x – 100 + 2x = 38
or 3x = 138 x = 46
Q.20 10 red shoes are of size A
So red shoes of size B = 25 – 10 = 15
50 shoes must be of size B
So blue shoes of size B are = 50 – 15 = 35
Q.21 Khalid’s Annual income at Ist job = 75000
“   “   “   “   “   “   “   “   “ new = 45000
The difference = 30000
Commission / Sale = 15/100 * 750
= 225/2
3000 = No. of sales required
225/2
6000/225 = 2400 /3 = 800 /3 = 366 (2/3)
But the number not fraction is added
267 is the required no.
Q.22 Volume of the box = 54 cubic cm.
Suppose one side of the base (square) = x
.. height = 3 * x
Volume of the box = length * breadth * height
= x*x*2x = 54
i.e. 2x3 = 54 or x3 = 27
     x = 3 cm
Q.23 Total no. of persons = 12
Number of Club “A” = ½ * 12 = 6
Member of club “B” = 1/3 * 12 = 4
“      “   club A * B ¼ * 12 = 3
.. combined no. of club A & B = 6 + 4 = 10
Each no. of members who are members of A + B:
= 10 – 3 = 7
No. of men who are members of non   = 12 – 7 = 5
Q.24 Mr. Bashirs rate of work = 1 / (6*3) = 1/18 per day
Mr. Pervaiz “  “  “  “ = 1 / (8*3) = 1/24 per day
Mr. Saeed’s rate of word = 1 / (12*3) = 1/36 per day
Work done by Bashir = 8 * 1/18 = 4/9
“   “   “   “ Pervaiz = 1/24 * 6 = ¼
Work done by Bashir + Pervaiz        = 4/9 + ¼ = 25 / 36
Left over work        = 1 – 25/36 = 11 / 36
: . Saeed will finish this work in       = 11/36 * 36/1 = 11 days

Q.25 Purchase price of novelties = 204
Ist day’s sale = 169.5
Cost price of Ist days sale = 204 – 82.5 = 121.5 Rs.
: . Gross profit on Ist day = 169.5 – 121.5 = Rs. 48
Q.26 Time taken by Ist wheel for one rotation = 7 min.
“   “   “   “ 2nd   “   “   “   “   “   “               = 5 min.
Time required to have the same position = 7 *5 = 35 min.

Q.27 Selling price of each radio               = Rs.120
& That of two radios               = 2 * 120 = 240
Suppose the cost price of two radios       = x1 . x2
Cost price of radio x1 (in which he has loss) :
             = (120/75) * 100 = 160
Therefore loss in x 1              = 160 – 120 = 40Rs.
Cost price of radio x2 (in which he earned profity)
             = (120 / 125) * 100 = 96
Therefore profit in x2 = 120 – 96 = 24Rs.
Total loss = 40 – 24 = 16Rs.
Q.28 No. of truck runs/week = 4 (Monday – Thursday)
No. of flavors = 5 No. of designs = 2
: . Total no. of varieties = 5*2 = 10 that means
10 trucks runs are required to fulfill the required conditions
i.e. Monday – Thursday (Ist – 4) = 4
     Monday – Thursday (8th – 11) = 4
     Monday – Thursday ( 15th & 16th ) = 2 / 10
: . 16 is the Answer.

Q.29 Length = 25 ft Base = 7 ft.
Height = sq. root of (252 – 72)           = 24 ft.
2nd case it slips 4 ft.
Hence the height = 24 – 4 = 20 ft.
: . Base in this case = sq. root of (252 – 202) = 15
: . Slipping = 15 – 7 = 8 ft.
Q.30 Value of the estate = 111000
Value of gifts = 1500 + 10000 + 2000
= 27000
: . Combined value = 111000 + 27000 = 13800
Each child’s share = 1380000/3 = 46000
Youngest child received gift of Rs. 2000
: . He received = 46000 – 2000
= Rs. 44000 from the estate

Test 3
Q.1 B Since “Every Liar” According to Robert statement is politician. Therefore; Bush who is a liar must also be a politician
Question of Robert’s Knowledge of many liars does not arise. (c) and (d) are also irrelevant because the relation is only between a liar and a politician.
(e) too is also insufficient for the conclusion.

Q.2 B There is no restriction on a rich people to buy trucks. (c) is discarded as it restricts to one rich person. (d) is also discarded as some rich may not buy cars. (e) only rich people buy cars and not some poor people buy cars.

Q.3 B Even capable and qualified doctors loose patients. Question of comparisons does not arise. Patients with many diseases may also be lost. (e) cannot mean in any way that no patient is lost.

Therefore the only possibility of lost of a patient is that he has just started practice. i.e. option (b)


4-7 Prepare a chart from the given information.

                                 R4                         R5                      R2                       R3                 R1

R 12
1 feet        1 feet                                            one                    feet
R10           ½ feet                                                                             ½

R8
                        1 feet    
R9                    1 feet
                        ½ feet
R7

R6
 
N
             
                                              W                                E



S
Q.4     D
Discarded R8 is on south moreover distance between R8 and R11 is unknown
Discarded since distance between R5 and R2 (consequently R2 and R4) in unknown.
R5 and R2 are parallel which don’t intersect.
True answer.
This is not necessarily true because R5 and R2 might be combined.

Q.5    E
Is true since distance between R4 and R5 is one foot
Is true because R5 lies between R2 and R3 which can’t be equal to
R4     => R5+R2    =>R3=1+1/2 feet
Is true because the distance between R2 and R1 is one feet.
Is also true because the sum of two parts of the same is the same R2   =>R5+R5+R3=1/2 foot.
Is false because R2=> 1 foot and R4 & R5 is also one foot.

Q.6    E
Is discarded because other conditions are contradicted
Is discarded because other conditions are contradicted
Is discarded because other conditions are contradicted
Is discarded because other conditions are contradicted
It’s the answer since its first part makes the two rods R5 and R3 coincided without contradicting other conditions.

Q.7   B     Since this is the only one which satisfies all the conditions (see from the chart)

Q.8  A     Rest are discarded because the eagle lives only in inland mountains. Outside the                                                 habitat he dies. Then the author cannot photograph them in tribes living in plains near the coast.

Q.9   O     As nobody likes nobody means that none is like by anyone whereas a & b have                                                               liking for others.

Q.10 B D and E necessarily false
May or may not
Not at all
May or may not
Not at all
Not at all

Q.11 C   is the true answer

Q.12 D   is the true answer.

Q.13 E   is the true answer.

Q.14 A    Since Sheikh Sahib is to be believed either Reema or Saima was made & if one of them was made the other must also be mad. Therefore both were mad. Rest of the statements do not satisfy the conditions.

Q.15 B    Silver Bark, although a new brand of king size cigarettes causes cancer as all the king size cause it. It is the size which cause cancer and no other is the cause

Q.16-18.

BMW Honda Toyota Nissan  
Mercedes Charade

Q.16   B   The company has the option to ensure charade or Honda but it must ensure Nissan Therefore B (2) is the answer.

Q.17  C   Because we cam make one combination with BMW including Honda and the second including Charade with Nissan and Toyota Similarly two combinations are possible with Mercedes. Hence in all four combinations are possible.

Q.18   D   The company has to insure four cars. It can either insure a Mercedes or a   BMW. Also it can either insure Charade or Honda. So it must insure Toyota and Nissan both.

Q.19 A
(1) is false because people are either dangerous or have guns so dangerous people do not necessarily possess guns.
(2) This is not false because due to 2nd assumption all the people are not dangerous they have only guns.
(3) This , too , is not false as stated above

Q.20 A        Jamil’s disagreement is not due to any restriction by Rashid on liking of haleem by Lahorie’s only on their love for haleem,(c) is irrelevant. (d) and (e) are also discarded on similar grounds.

Q.22-25
Conclusion:
(1) Mr. Ali can have grade 1-4 only because the last grade six, if occupied by chaudary ; Ali is bound to occupy grade 4.
(2) Mr.Dawood must be in grade 1-5 , he cannot occupy grade 6 ; otherwise the second conditions will not be fulfilled.

Q.22. D
Bashir can’t be in second grade because he is next grade to Dawood.
Incorrect because Mr.Ali is two grades below Mr.Chaudary and in that case he should be in grade three.
Incorrect as grade three should be occupied by Chaudary as Ali is in grade one.
Is true answer since Mr. Dawood can’t be in grade second and third is occupied by Chaudary. Therefore Dawood’s grade must be higher than Chaudary ‘s grade (third.
Incorrect because third grade is occupied by Chaudary. Fifth grade must be either occupied by Bashir or Dawood.

Q.23 1 2 3 4 5 6
B D
Since Mr. Bashir is in higher grade , he can’t occupy grade 4 as he is next to Dawood. Now , Ali is two grades below , therefore he can only occupy up to grade 4. But Bashir being C higher grade than Ejaz and next to Dawood leaves no chance for Ali to occupy grade 4. Grade 3 is occupied by E, hence Ali should be either in Grade 2 of Grade 1 but he can’t be in grade 1 because third grade is occupied by Ejaz and conditions of him being two grades below Chaudary not fulfilled , hence , he(Ali) should be in grade 2 and grade 4 should go to Chaudary Therefore the vacant position is grade 1 which is the answer.

Q.24 C
1 2 3 4 5 6
B D
Since B is next to D and B has grade 1 therefore grade 2 must be occupied by D.
Therefore a) is discarded , Ali being two grade below Chaudary can’t occupy grade five or grade six. Therefore , he is restricted to grade 3 and grade 4.

Q.25 C
1 2 3 4 5 6
B D A C
Mr. Ali is two grades below Mr. Chaudary , therefore he cannot have grade higher than four. If Ali is given grade 3 than between B’s grade and A’s grade , remains only one grade which contradicts is the other condition. Hence, Ali (A) must be in grade 4
DEPARTMENT OF COMPUTE SCIENCE
UNIVERSITY OF THE PUNJAB
POST GRADUATE DIPLOMA
Admission Test
TEST 1
TIME: 20 MINUTES
INSTRUCTIONS
§ PLEASE MARK YOUR ANSWERS ON THE ANSWER SHEET.
§ ANSWER MARKED ON THE QUESTION PAPER WILL NOT BE GRADED.
§ POINT WILL BE AWARDED FOR CORRECT ANSWERS.
§ POINT WILL BE DEDUCTED FOR WRONG ANSWERS
§ POINT WILL BE DEDUCTED FOR MUTIPLY MARKED ANSWERS.
§ QUESTIONS LEFT UNANSWERE WILL GET O POINTS.
§ MARK YOUR ANSWER BY SHADING YOUR CHOCIE AS SHOWN
(a)     (b)     (.)     (5)     (e)
E ach question in this test consists of a SERIES of numbers and/or letters which are related by a certain rule. You have to determine the correct rule and thereby complete the series. Only one of the indicated answers is the correct one.

Example 1.
4 8 12 16 ?
(a) 18 (b) 20 (c) 22 (d) 24 (e) 26
In this example, each number is 4 larger than the preceding number. Therefore adding 4 to the last number 16 gives 20. Therefore (b) is the correct answer.
Example 2.
AY BX CW DV ?
(a)FU (b)EV (c)EU (d)DX (e)GX
In this example of the first character is increasing by one while the second character is decreasing by one. Hence the next pattern in the series would be EU. Therefore (c) is the correct answer.
DO NOT TURN THE PAGE UNTIL YOU ARE INSTRUCTED TO DO SO.

TEST 1 TIME 20 MINUTES
Q.1 2 4 7 11 16 ?
(a) 21 (b) 22 (c) 23 (d) 24 (e) 25

Q.2 18 19 17 18 16 ?
(a) 17 (b) 14 (c) 18 (d) 19 (e) 20

Q.3 12 13 26 27 54 ?
(a) 55 (b) 108 (c) 56 (d) 53 (e) 109

Q.4 14 15 13 39 40 ?
(a) 80 (b) 41 (c) 42 (d) 37 (e) 38

Q.5 15 20 27 36 47 ?
(a) 58 (b) 60 (c) 78 (d) 71 (e) 67

Q.6 68 69 63 54 38 ?
(a) 13 (b) 21 (c) 31 (d) 36 (e) 37

Q.7 14 15 17 21 29 ?
(a) 30 (b) 33 (c) 37 (d) 42 (e) 45

Q.8 12 18 30 54 102 ?
(a) 135 (b) 19/8 (c) 172 (d) 182 (e) 153

Q.9 14 17 21 24 28 ?
(a) 27 (b) 29 (c) 31 (d) 33 (e) 37

Q.10 15 35 18 29 21 ?
(a) 44 (b) 35 (c) 31 (d) 23 (e) 21

Q.11 41 29 20 13 8 ?
(a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 7 (d) 1 (e) 4

Q.12 3 7 15 31 63 ?
(a) 127 (b) 80 (c) 128 (d) 96 (e) 184

Q.13 6 8 12 20 36 ?
(a) 56 (b) 57 (c) 62 (d) 68 (e) 72

Q.14 1 1 2 3 5 ?
(a) 5 (b) 10 (c) 13 (d) 8 (e) 21

Q.15 10 12 18 36 90 ?
(a) 175 (b) 190 (c) 210 (d) 226 (e) 252

Q.16 1 9 25 49 81 ?
(a) 121 (b) 256 (c) 64 (d) 144 (e) 169

Q.17 48 24 72 36 108 ?
(a) 324 (b) 216 (c) 54 (d) 36 (e) 27

Q.18 1.0 0.01 10.0 0.001 100.0
(a) 0.01 (b) 1000.0 (c) 1.0 (d) 0.0001 (e) 0.0

Q.19 15 27 41 77 124 ?
(a) 185 (b) 180 (c) 175 (d) 170 (e) 165

Q.20 AZ DW GT JQ ?
(a) MN (b) LN (c) MO (d) LP (e) NN

Q.21 BZX DWU GTQ KQL ?
(a) PMG (b) QNF (c) PNE (d) RMF (e) PNF

Q.22 AZ DX HU MQ
(a) TM (b) SM (c) TL (d) RL (e) SL

Q.23 64CW 16ES 321O 80K ?
(a) 16WG(b) 16Uc (c) 2WD (d) 2VE (e) 16YF

Q.24 CDEF DFHJ EHKN EJNR ?
(a)GLRW(b) GLQX (c) JQOV (d)HPQW (e) GLQV

Q.25 XYZ WVV VSR UPN ?
(a) SNJ (b) TMJ (c) SMJ (d) TNL (e) TMK

Q.26 U20Y S21W P19T L22P ?
(a)G1ll (b) G 18K (c) H91 (d) l18K (e) l18J

Q.27 YXW VTS SPN PLI ?
(a) MID (b) LHD (c) LHE (d) MHD (e) MHE

Q.28 BZCW HTGS NNKO THOK ?
(a)YBPH (b) XCTH (c) YCPF (d) ZDSG (e) ZBSG

Q.29 ZF500 X1419 UM370 QR345 ?
(a) KY240  (b) LY240  (c) LX336 (d) MW336 (e) MX320

Q.30 A A B C E ?
(a) H (b) F (c) G (d) D (e) I






DEPARTMENT OF COMPUTE SCIENCE
UNIVERSITY OF THE PUNJAB
POST GRADUATE DIPLOMA
Admission Test
TEST 2
TIME: 30 MINUTES
INSTRUCTIONS
NOTE:********** CALCULATORS ARE NOT ALLOWED **********
v PLEASE MARK YOUR ANSWERS ON THE ANSWER SHEET.
v MARK YOUR ANSWER BY SHADING YOUR CHOICE AS SHOWN.
(a)     (b)     (.)     (d)     (e)
This test consists of two parts each having 15 questions in each of the Questions. 1-15, the problem states two quantities, one in column A and one in column B, with possibly some additional information. You are to compare the two quantities and choose your answer as follows:
If the quantity in column A is greater
If the quantity in column B is greater.
It the two quantities are equal.
If the relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

Example 1.
Column A Column B
2/7 12/49
Since 2/7 is greater than 12/49, (a) is the correct answer.

Example 2.
Given that x>0.

x2

If x>1, x2>1
TEST 2 TIME 30 MINUTES
PART A
________________________________________________________________________
          Column A Column B
________________________________________________________________________
Q.1 Then number of posts needed for a 13 posts fence 169 feet long with posts placed 13 feet apart and at each end of the fence.
________________________________________________________________________
Q.2 4 silver and 1 gold coins are worth as much as 2 gold and 1 silver coins.
4 of these silver coins 1 of these gold coins
________________________________________________________________________
Q.3 Time between 7:55 am 1/3 hour
And 8:15 am
________________________________________________________________________
Q.4 4.5 45/1000
________________________________________________________________________
Q.5                  π 3.1415926
________________________________________________________________________
Q.6 2/3 of 8 7/16 of 4
________________________________________________________________________
Q.7 The radius of circle A is one third the radius of circle B.
Circumference of circle B 3 time the circumference of circle A
Q.8 a/b = o/d
Ad bc
________________________________________________________________________
Q.9 Square Root of (1.0/0.1’6) 2.0
________________________________________________________________________
Q.10 A2 + B2 = 100 and  -6 <=b<=0
Lowest possible value of a 0
_______________________________________________________________________
Q.11 0 4x 3y
________________________________________________________________________
Q.12 2/4 divided by 3/8 one and a half
________________________________________________________________________
Q.13 2 = 2b and a < b < 9
   6                                                 a
________________________________________________________________________
Q.14    a6                  6a5
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Q.15 x>0
   (-3)x                  (2)x

PART B
Q.16 If a roast that requires 1 hour and 40 minutes of roasting time has been in the oven for 70 minutes, how many more minutes of roasting time are required?
(a) 25 (b) 30 (c) 35 (d) 40 (e) 45
Q.17 At a special sale, 4 tickets can be purchased for the price of 3 tickets. If 4 tickets are purchased at this sale, the amount saved will be what percent of the original price of the four tickets?
(a) 25% (b) 50% (c) 75% (d) 30% (e) 80%

Q.18 Raza went shopping with A rupees. He spent 25% of his money on a wrist watch and two-thirds of what was left on new tires for his motorbike. What percentage of the original D rupees did he spend?
(a) 25% (b) 50% (c) 75% (d) 30% (e) 80%

Q.19 A lamp is manufactured to sell for Rs.50.00 which yields a profit of 25% of the cost. If the profit is to be reduced to 15% of the cost. If the profit is to be reduced to 15% of the cost, the new retail price should be:
(a) Rs.40 (b) Rs.35 (c) Rs.31.50 (d) Rs.32.20 (e) Rs.46.00

Q.20 Shoaib, Faheem and Ajmal each walked 10 mile lengths of a 30 mile relay race at speeds of 4, 5 and 6 miles per hour respectively. What fraction of the total time did Shoaib walk?
(a) 15/37 (b) 4/15 (c) 15/74 (d) 3/5 (e) 5/4

Q.21 A pile of steel plates is 2.75 feet high. If each plate is 0.375 inches thick, the number of steel plates in the pile is:
(a) 7 (b) 98 (c) 7.333 (d) 88 (e) more than 88

Q.23 When twelve liters of petrol are put in a car the indicator on the fuel gauge goes from 1/4 to 5/8. The total capacity of the petrol tank in liters is:
(a) 32 (b) 24 (c) 26 (d) 36 (e) 30

Q.24 A plane covers the distance ‘d’ between two cities in ‘h’ hours, arriving 2 hours later than desired. What speed would allow the place to arrive on time?
(a) h-2 (b) (d/h)-2 (c) d/(h-2) (d) dh-2 (e)d/(h+2)

Q.25 A tap can fill a bath tub in ‘h’ hours. What part of the tub is filled in ‘x’ hours?
(a) hx (b) h/x (c) x/h (d) h+x (e) hx/2

Q.26 In traveling from his home to the university 200 miles away, a student went 1/5 of the way by foot, 5/8 of the way by bus and the remaining 35 miles by car. What was the distance in miles from his home to the university?
(a) 120 (b) 180 (c) 210 (d) 200 (e) 260

Q.27 A shopkeeper sold two different radios for Rs.240 each. One was sold at a loss of 25% of its cost and the other was sold at a profit of 25% of its cost. On both transactions combined, the merchant lost:
(a) Rs.128 (b) Rs.36 (c) Rs.30 (d) Rs.0 (e) Rs.32

Q.28 If  ‘a’ and ‘b’ are both positive integers and (a-b)/3.5 = 4/7 then
(a) b

(b) b>a (c) b=a (d) b>=a (e) b<=a
Q.29 In a group of 15 students 7 have studied Astronomy. 8 have studied Computer Science and 3 have not studied either of two subjects. How many of these students have studied both Astronomy and Computer Science?
(a) 0 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5 (e) 7

Q.30 A box contains 3 pairs each of brown and black socks. What is the smallest number of stocks which could be taken from the box without looking such that at least two socks of the same color were obtained?
(a) 6 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 2 (e) 12
DEPARTMENT OF COMPUTE SCIENCE
UNIVERSITY OF THE PUNJAB
POST GRADUATE DIPLOMA
Admission Test
TEST 1
TIME: 20 MINUTES
INSTRUCTIONS
§ PLEASE MARK YOUR ANSWERS ON THE ANSWER SHEET.
§ MARK YOUR ANSWER BY SHADING YOUR CHOICE AS SHOWN
(a) (b) (.) (d) (e)
__________________________________________________________________
In this test different statements or paragraphs are give, One or more questions relating to each paragraph is given immediately following the statements. You are to read the statements carefully analyze the facts given and then answer the question/s given below:
The letter S, T, U. V, W, X, Y and Z represent eight consecutive whole numbers, not necessarily in that order.
W is 4 more than Z and 3 less than X
S is more than T and less than X
U is the average of V and X
Question 1.
If the lowest number of the series is 8, what is the value of W?
(a) 10 (b) 11 (c) 12 (d) 13 (e) 14
On analyzing the statements we find that Z is the lowest number in the series. W is 4 greater than Z so the value of W must be 12. Thus the correct answer is (c).
Question 2.
Which of the following is/are true?
(1) W is not the largest number in the series.
(2) Z is not the largest number in the series.
(3) X is not the largest number in the series.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1 and 3 only (e) 1,2 and 3

Answer is (c). W is smaller than X so 1 is true. W is greater than Z so 2 is true. X is seven larger than Z so in a series of 8 consecutive whole numbers, X must be the largest. Thus 3 is false.

TEST 2 TIME 30 MINUTES
Question 1-4 relate to the following statements:
All roads in a city run North-South or East-West. There are no curves in the roads.

Roads 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 are parallel to one another
Roads 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11 and 12 are parallel to one another
Roads 1 is one mile east of road 2
Road 2 is half a mile west of road 3
Road 4 is one mile west of road 5
Road 6 is half a mile south of road 7
Road 8 is one mile north of road 9
Road 10 is half a mile north of road 11
Road 10 is one mile south of road 12

Q.1 Which of the following is necessarily true?
Road 8 is one mile north of Road 11
Road 4 is two miles west of road 2
Road 5 and road 2 intersect
Road 12 is one and a half mile north of road 11
Road 4 is at least two miles west of road 1

Q.2 If Road 5 is somewhere between roads 2 and 3, then which of the following is false?
Road 4 is less than one mile from road 2
Road 3 is less than one and a half mile from road 4
Road 5 is less than one mile from road 1
The distance between roads 2 and 5 added to the distance between roads 3 and 5 is half a mile
Road 4 is two miles west of road 1

Q.3 Which of the following possibilities would make two road coincide?
If Road 11 is half a mile north of road 8
If Road 4 is half a mile east of road 1
If Road 8 half a mile north of road 10
If Road 3 is one mile west of road 4
If Roads 5 and 2 are half a mile apart or roads 7 and 9 are half a mile apart.

Q.4 If Road X is parallel to road 8 and road X is half a mile south of road 9 and one mile north of road 6, which two roads would be half a mile apart?
(a) Roads 8 and X (b) X and 7 (c) 9 and 6 (d) 9 and 7 (e) 8 and 6

Questions 5 and 6 are related to the following:
Eight university cricket players (G,H,I,J,K,L,M,N,O) are to be honored at a special function. Three of these players (H.M and O) are also football players. Two of them (K and N) are basketball players also In arranging the seats, it was decided  that a player who participated in two sports should not sit next to another such player.

Q.5 Which of the following seating arrangements would not violate the above rule?
(a) H G K J (b) H K J L (c) J K M N (d) J L H K (e) L K N J

Q.6 To have the proper seating arrangement, K should sit between:
(a) G and H (b) J and M (c) L and N (d) J and L (e) H and J

Q.7 “The pilot has never been involved in a crash”
This statement would seem very foolish if we knew that:
The pilot was a very capable and qualified person
He had just started flying
Had flown more flights than any other pilot
Could fly a large variety of different planes
Had spent more than five years in flight training school

Q.8 “Only rich people travel by air”
We conclude from this statement that:
No rich person travels by road
Anyone who travels by air must be rich
At least one rich person will travel by air
All poor people do not travel by air
Some poor people travel by air

Q.9 All people who have cars are rich.
All people are either rich or have cars

Give the above assumptions, which of the following must be false?
1. All people who are rich have cars
2. Some people are not rich
3. There are people with cars who are not rich
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only (e) 1,2 and 3
Questions 10-12 relate to the following statements:
The top six race car rivers are to be given prizes according to their world rankings, Inadvertently, they have been made to stand in the queue in the wrong order. As a result of the error, the following situation exists:
1. Any two drivers who would normally be adjacent are no longer so
2. Exactly one of the drivers is occupying his correct position
3. Driver 1 is standing behind driver 6 and exactly one other driver is between them
4. Driver 4 is not last
5. Driver 5 is standing before driver 2

Q.10. Which driver cannot be standing among the last three in the queue?
(a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5 (e) 6

Q.11.Which of the following must be false?
Driver 3 comes before 2
Driver 3 comes before 4
Driver 5 comes after 1
Driver 6 is second in order
Driver 3 occurs last

Q.12 Which of the following could possibly be true?
1. Driver 6 comes after 2
2. Driver 4 comes after 5
3. Driver 6 comes after 4
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only (e) 1,2 and 3





Q.13 Ali says that “Since every child I know likes ice-cream, Asad must also like ice-cream”
We conclude from Ali’s statement that:
Ali does not know many children
Asad is a child
Asad likes ice-cream
Ali is a good friend of Asad
Ali saw Asad behaving childishly

Questions 14-17 are based on the following:
Literature students in class have varied tastes in poetry.
v All who enjoy the poetry of Iqbal also like the poetry of Ghalib
v Those who enjoy Ghalib dislike Faiz
v Some who enjoy Ghalib also enjoy Faraz
v All who enjoy the poetry of Faiz also enjoy Mir
v Some who enjoy Mir also enjoy Ghalib
v Some who enjoy Faraz dislike Faiz
v All who enjoy Mir also enjoy Saadi

Q.14 Which if the following statements must be true?
All who enjoy Ghalib also enjoy Iqbal
None who dislike the poetry of Saadi enjoy the poetry of Faraz
Some who enjoy Faraz dislike Faiz
None of those who enjoy Iqbal dislike Mir
Some of those who enjoy Saadi dislike Mir

Q.15 Student A enjoys the poetry of Faiz. Which of the following must be false?
A does not enjoy the poetry of Faraz
A enjoys the poetry of Mir
A enjoys the poetry of Iqbal
A may or may not enjoy the poetry of Ghalib

Q.16 B enjoys the poetry of Iqbal. B may also enjoy any of the following poets except:
Faraz
Faiz
Mir
Ghalib
Saadi

Q.17 C enjoys the poetry of Mir. Which of the following must be true?
C may or may not enjoy the poetry of Faiz
C does not enjoy the poetry of Iqbal
C enjoys the poetry of Faraz
C does not enjoy the poetry of Ghalib
C enjoys the poetry of Faiz

Q.18 If nobody likes nobody, which of the following must be true?
1. Every body likes somebody
2. Somebody likes somebody
3. Nobody likes anybody
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 3 only (d) 1 and 2 only (e) 2 and 3 only

Q.19 All king size cigarettes cause cancer
“Red Loaf” is the name of a new brand of king size cigarettes
We can conclude from the above statements that:
“Red Loaf” smokers may have cancer
“Red Loaf” causes cancer
Anyone with cancer smokes “Red Loaf”
Nobody who smokes regular cigarettes gets cancer
People with cancer prefer king size cigarettes over regular cigarettes

SOLUTION OF 94

1. B Add Difference Of Last Two + 1 to Last Digit.
2. A Add 1 Or Deduct 2 Alternatively. Its Turn Of + 1.
3. A Series Is Add 1 Or Double The Last Digit. Its Turn Of +1
4. E Add 1, Deduct –2 And Multiply By 3. Its Turn To Deduct 2.
5. B Add Difference Of Last Two+2
6. A Subtract Square Of (N) Where Know N=5
7. E Add Increasing Power of 2
8. B Double The Difference Of Last Two
9. C Add 3 And 4 Alternatively. Its Turn To Add 3
10. D Alternatively Add 3 Or Deduct 6 To The 2nd Last
11. B Subtract Decreasing Odd Number
12. A Double The Difference Of Last Two
13. D Double The Difference Of Last Two
14. D Add 3
15. E Multiply Difference With 3
16. A Square Of Odd Numbers.
17. C Divide By 2 Or Multiply By 3. Its Turn To Divide
18. D Divide Or Multiply By 10 The 2nd Last Value
20. E Add 3 In First Character And Deduct 3 From Last.
21. E Add 5 In First, Deduct 3 From Second And Deduct 6 From Third.
22. A Add 5 In First And Deduct 5 From Last
23. A Divide By 2 Alternatively Numeric Value And Its Turn Of 16. Find    Difference Of Alphabets.  
24. E Add 1 From First, In Second, 3 In Third And 4 In Fourth.
25. B Deduct 1 From First, 3 From Second And 4 From Third.
27. D Deduct 3 From First, 4 From Second And 5 From Third.
28. E Add 6 In First, Deduct 6 From Second Add 4 In Third And Deduct 4 From Second.
29. C Deduct 5 From First Add 6 To Second And Deduct Square Of 3.
30. C Add 2

Test 2
PART A
Q.1 The number of post 13 apart needed for 169 ft length.
= 169/13 + 1 = 14
Since one post is also required at the far end.
A is Ans.

Q.2 4(S) + 1 (G) = 2(G) + 1 (S)
                             or
2(G) – (G) = 4 (S) – 1 (S)
    or
1(G) = 3 (S)
Now 4(S) are greater than one G coin.
A is the Ans.

Q.3 Time between 7:55 & 8:15 a.m. =
                   20 min. which equals column B
C is the Ans.

Q.4 4.5 = 4/510 which is greater than 45/1000
A is the Ans.

Q.5 π = 3.14285 is greater than 3.1415926
A is the Ans.

Q.6 2/3 of 8 = (2/3) * 8 = 16/3
         &
7/16 of 4 = 28/16 = 7/4
Now 16/3 is greater than 7/4
A is the Ans.

Q.7 4/3*π*r3 & 4/3*π* (1/3 r)3
A is the answer.

Q.8 a/b = c/d or a * d = c* b
Both sides equals
C is the Ans.

Q.9 Sq. root 1.0 / 0. 16 = 5/2 which is greater than 2
A is the Ans.

Q.10 Lowest possible value of a = -8 Which is less than 0.
So answer is B.

Q.11 Insufficient Information.

Q.12 (2/4) / (3/8) = 2/4 * 8/3
= 4/3 which is less than one and a half
B is the Ans.

Q.13 Maximum possible value of a = 4.5. So.
Answer is A.

Q.14 From a6 & 6a5
Relationship cannot be determined
D is the Ans.

Q.15 From (-3)x & 2x
Relationship cannot be determined
D is the Ans.

Q.16 Roasting time required = 1 hr + 40 min. = 60 + 40
= 100 min.
Time in the oven = 70 min.
More minutes required to complete roasting:

Q.17 Suppose original price of 4 tickets = 100Rs.
: . “   “   “   “   3   “   “   “   “   “ = 100/4 * 3 = 75
Since 4 tickets are purchased for 3x/4 price (3 tickets)
The saving = 100 – 75 = 25 %

Q.18 Original amount = A Rs.
Price of wrist watch = 25 A = A/4
100

Left over amount = A – A/4 = 3A/4
Amount spent on purchase of tyres = ¾ * 2A/3 = A/2
Total amount spent = A/4 + A/2 = 3A/4
i.e. 75% of A

Q.19 Suppose manufacturing cost = x
: . x + 25x / 100 = 50
: . 5x/4 = 50
or
x = 40Rs.
For 15% profit retail price should be:
= 40 + 15/100 *40 = 46Rs.

Q.20 Shoaib Speed Fahim Speed Ajmal Speed
10/4 10/5 10/6
Total time = 5/2 + 2 + 5/3
= ( 15 + 12 + 10) / 6 = 37/6
Shoaib’s fraction of time = 5/2 * 6/37 = 15/37

Q.21 Height of the steel plate’s pile = 2.73 * 12 = 33 inches
Thickness of one plate = 0.378 inches
Number of steel plates = 33 / 0.375 = 88

Q.22 Average of 3 positive integers = 200
: . Their total = 3 * 200 = 600
The largest integer = 240
: . Sum of the remaining two integers = 600 – 240
= 360
: . The maximum value of the 2nd largest integer = 239
Hence the least possible value of the smallest.
= 360 – 239 = 121

Q.23 Petrol added = 12 litters
Indicator rises = 5/8 – ¼ = 3/8
3/8 represents capacity = 12 liters
One capacity represents     = 12 * 8/3 = 32 litters

Q.24 Distance between two cities = d
Time taken to cover = h
Time required by plan to reach in time = h – 2
: . Speed required to reach in time = d / (h – 2)

Q.25 Filling rate of the tub = 1/h per hour
In x hours the tub will be filled =x* 1/h

Q.26 Answer is given which is 200 miles.

Q.27 Selling price of each radio = 240
Suppose the cost of one radio = x1
: . Selling price = x1 + 25x1/100 = 5x1/4
              5x1/4 = 240
x1 = 4/5 * 240 = 192
Selling price of the 2nd radio = x2 – 25x/100
       = 3 x2/4 = 240
x1 + x2 = 192 + 320        = 512
: . Net loss = 5/2 – 480        = 32Rs.


Q.28 (a-b) / (3-5) = (a-b) / (7/2)
2(a-b) / 7 = 4/7
: . 2(a-b) = 4 or a-b = 2
: . a is grater than b or b is less than a.

Q.29 Group of students = 15 nos.
No. of “     “     who have studied Astronomy     = 7
“          “         “            “           “    Com Science = 8
“          “         “            “           “       “    Non = 3
: . Remaining students                    = 15 – 3 = 12
: . Those who have studied both = 8+7- = 12

Q.30 Randomly trying 2 tries are sufficient

Test 3
Q.1 D
Discarded R8 is one south moreover distance between R8 R11 is unknown.
Discarded since distance between R5 and R2 (consequently R2 and R4) in unknown.
R5 and R2 are parallel which don’t intersect.
True answer.
This is not necessarily true because R5 and R2 might be combined.
Q.2 E
Is true since distance between R4 and R5 is one foot.
Is true because R5 lies between R2 and R3 which can’t be equal to R4    => R5+R2     =>R3=1+1/2 feet
Is true because the distance between R2 and R1 is one feet.
Is also true because the sum of two parts of the same is the same
R2   =>R5+R5+R3=1/2 foot.
Is false because R2     = > 1 foot and R4 & R5 is also one foot.

Q.3 E
Is discarded because other conditions are contradicted.
Is discarded because other conditions are contradicted.
Is discarded because other conditions are contradicted.
Is discarded because other conditions are contradicted.
It’s the answer since its first part makes the two rods R5 and R3 conceded without contradicting other conditions.

Q.4 B
Since this is the only which satisfies all the conditions (see from the chart).
5-6

Cricket
Players G H J K L M N O  
Football
Players H M O  
Basketball
I Players K N

Q.5 Seeing from the above, it is obvious that the a) is the only answer.

Q.6 The question is wrong because five players take part in two games. Even if such
players are seated on two extremes at least one of such players must be new to his
creed.



Q.7 B In this question we have to check the possibilities. If doctor is experienced
and had checked a lot of patients then there are less chances of lost of a patient.
Therefore the only possibility of lost of a patient is that he has just started practice.
i.e. option (b).

Q.8 B Because it is restricted the word only in the statement, therefore there is no
option of possibility.
Therefore only b fulfills this restriction.

Q.9 C
(1) not necessarily.
(2) May be.
(3) Is the answer because only the fulfills the two assumptions.

Q.10 C is the true answer.

Q.11 B,D and E are necessarily false.
May or may not
Not at all
May or may not
Not at all
Not at all

Q.12 E is the true answer.

Q.13 B Because every child likes ice-cream and Asad is also likes ice-cream. Therefore it is necessary according to the statements that he is a child.

Q.14 C Its given in the argument(6).

Q.15 D        As every one who enjoys Iqbal dislike Faiz so he dislikes Iqbal (argument 2).

Q.16 B Same as above reason.

Q.17 E As everyone who enjoys Mir, he likes Faiz.

Q.18 C As nobody likes nobody means that none is like by anyone whereas a & b have likings for others.

Q.19 B Silver Bark, although a new brand of king size cigarettes causes cancer as all the king size cause it. It is the size which cause cancer and no other is the cause.







DEPARTMENT OF COMPUTE SCIENCE
UNIVERSITY OF THE PUNJAB
POST GRADUATE DIPLOMA
Admission Test
TEST 1
TIME: 20 MINUTES
INSTRUCTIONS
§ PLEASE MARK YOUR ANSWERS ON THE ANSWER SHEET.
§ ANWERS MARKED ON THE QUESTION PAPER WILL NOT BE GRADED.
§ 1 POINT WILL BE AWARDED FOR CORRECT ANSWERS.
§ ¼ POINT WILL BE DEDUCTED FOR WRONG ANSWERS
§ MULTIPLY MARKED ANSWERS WILL BE TREATED AS WRONG ANSWERS.
§ QUESTIONS LEFT UNANSWERED WILL GET O POINTS.
§ MARK YOUR ANSWER BY SHADING YOUR CHOICE AS SHOWN
(a) (b) (.) (d) (e)
__________________________________________________________________
Each question in this test consists of a SERIES of numbers and/or letters which are related by a certain rule. You have to determine the correct rule and thereby complete the series. Only one of the indicated answers is the correct one.
Example 1:

4 8 12 16 ?
(a) 18 (b) 20 (c) 22 (d) 24 (e) 26
In this example, each number is 4 larger than the preceding number. Therefore, adding 4 to the last number 16 gives 20. Therefore (b) is the correct answer.
Example 2:
In this example of the first character is increasing by one while the second character is decreasing by one. Hence the next pattern in the series would be EU. Therefore (c) is the correct answer.
Q.1 15 16 17 19 22 ?
(a) 25 (b) 30 (c) 24 (d) 27 (e) 26

Q.2 1 4 16 64 256 ?
(a) 512 (b) 2048 (c) 4096 (d) 1563

Q.3 1 5 13 29 61 ?
(a) 93 (b) 125 (c) 63 (d) 66 (e) 99

Q.4 6 9 15 27 51 ?
(a) 100 (b) 75 (c) 63 (d) 66 (e) 99

Q.5 240 30 6 2 1 ?
(a) 2 (b) –6 (c) –1 (d) 1 (e) 0

Q.6 10 11 17 16 25 ?
(a) 1614 (b) 305 (c) 485 (d) 1565 (e) 9684

Q.7 1 4 9 16 25 ?
(a) 64 (b) 72 (c) 36 (d) 38 (e) 49


Q.8 32 16 48 24 72 ?
(a) 216 (b) 108 (c) 144 (d) 24 (e) 36

Q.9 2.0 0.02 20.0 0.002 200.0 ?
(a) 2000.0 (b) 2.1 (c) 0.002 (d) 0.2 (e) 0.02

Q.10 2 5 10 17 26 ?
(a) 36 (b) 37 (c) 38 (d) 30 (e) 40

Q.11 22 24 27 31 36 ?
(a) 42 (b) 44 (c) 46 (d) 64 (e) 40

Q.12 18 19 16 17 14 ?
(a) 11 (b) 18 (c) 13 (d) 12 (e) 15

Q.13 12 14 28 30 60 ?
(a) 120 (b) 62 (c) 84 (d) 78 (e) 90

Q.14 10 11 22 19 23 ?
(a) 46 (b) 20 (c) 92 (d) 115 (e) 24

Q.15 15 22 29 40 53 ?
(a) 60 (b) 20 (c) 92 (d) 115 (e) 58

Q.16 73 72 68 59 43 ?
(a) 28 (b) 42 (c) 27 (d) 7 (e) 18

Q.17 1 2 3 5 8 ?
(a) 7 (b) 10 (c) 8 (d) 13 (e) 21

Q.18 3 10 24 52 108 ?
(a) 220 (b) 64 (c) 72 (d) 63 (e) 57

Q.19 14 21 32 39 50 ?
(a) 61 (b) 64 (c) 72 (d) 63 (d) 57

Q.20 V22Y T23W Q21T M24P ?
(a) H20K (b) I11I (c) J20K (d) J20J (e) H13I

Q.21 XXW UTS RPN OLI ?
(a) KHD (b) KHE (c) LHD (d) LHE (e) LID

Q.22 BYCW HSGS NMKO TGOK ?
(a) XBTH     (b) YBPF       (c) ZCSG    (d) ZASG   (e) YAPII

Q.24 B B C D F ?
(a) G (b) H (c) E (d) J (e) I

Q.25 BZ EWHT KQ ?
(a) MN (b) NO (c) NP (d) ON (e) NN

Q.26 BTX DVU GSQ KPL ?
(a) QMF (b) PME (c) RLF (d) PMF (e) PLG

Q.27 CZ FX JU OQ ?
(a) UM (b) VL (c) TL (d) UL (e) VM

Q.28 1CX 1ET 2IP 30L ?
(a) 5UD (b) 5WE (c) 8VF (d) 11 YG (e) 5WII

Q.29 BDEG CFHK KHKO EJNS ?
(a) FLQY (b) GQOW (c) GPOX (d) FLQW (e) FLRX

Q.30 WXY VUU URQ TOM ?          
(a) SLI (b) RLI (c) SMk (d) SLJ (E) RMI

DEPARTMENT OF COMPUTE SCIENCE
UNIVERSITY OF THE PUNJAB
POST GRADUATE DIPLOMA
Admission Test
TEST 1
TIME: 20 MINUTES
INSTRUCTIONS
§ PLEASE MARK YOUR ANSWERS ON THE ANSWER SHEET.
§ ANWERS MARKED ON THE QUESTION PAPER WILL NOT BE GRADED.
§ 1 POINT WILL BE AWARDED FOR CORRECT ANSWERS.
§ ¼ POINT WILL BE DEDUCTED FOR WRONG ANSWERS
§ MULTIPLY MARKED ANSWERS WILL BE TREATED AS WRONG ANSWERS.
§ QUESTIONS LEFT UNANSWERED WILL GET O POINTS.
§ MARK YOUR ANSWER BY SHADING YOUR CHOICE AS SHOWN
(a) (b) (.) (d) (e)
__________________________________________________________________
This test consists of two parts each having 15 questions. In each of the Questions, 1-15, the problem states two quantities, one in column A and one in column B, with possibly some additional information. You are to compare the two quantities and choose your answer as follows:

If the quantity in column A is greater.
If the quantity in column B us greater.
If the two quantities are equal.
If the relationship cannot be determined the information given

Example 1
Column A Column B
2/7 12/49
Example 2
Given that x>0.
        x2 1
If x>1 then x2>1 otherwise x2<1 .="" hence="" information="" is="" nbsp="" not="" p="" provided="" sufficient="" the="" to="">solve the problem and therefore, the correct answer is (d).
________________________________________________________________________
Questions 16-30 relate to simple arithmetic and logical reasoning After each question,
there are five answers but only one of them is the correct answer. You are to solve each
question and indicate which answer you think is correct.



Example:
The ice compartment of a refrigerator is 10 inches wide, 5 inches high and 4 inches deep.
If an cube is 2 inches on each side, how many whole cubes will fit into the compartment?
(a) 20 (b) 25 (c) 30 (d) 16 (e) 32
5 cubes will fit in the width, only 2 in the height and 2 in the depth.
Thus the total number of cubes is 5x2x2=20.
_______________________________________________________________________
TEST 2 30 MINUTES
PART A
Column A Column B
Q.1 0.0003 0.003%
________________________________________________________________________
Q.2 Average of one tenth, 0.111
One hundredth,
And one thousand
________________________________________________________________________
Q.3 abc = 0 and c = 1
Ab   1
________________________________________________________________________
Q.4 y-5=8 anc x + 5 = 7
x = y 15
________________________________________________________________________
Q.5 Square root of (0.16/0.25)                     0.9
________________________________________________________________________
Q.6 (5)(4)(3) = ((15)(16)/x
x 4
________________________________________________________________________
Q.7 x = 2 and y = 3
x – y y – x
________________________________________________________________________
Q.8 (1/4)/(3/8) 1.5
________________________________________________________________________
Q.9 a/b=c/d
ad bc
________________________________________________________________________
Q.10 a6 6a5
________________________________________________________________________
Q.11 3x y>x>0 y
________________________________________________________________________
Q.12 q x s
________________________________________________________________________
Q.13 9/a < 9/b and a > 1 and b> 1
a b
________________________________________________________________________
Q.14 Time between 9.45 a.m. ¾ hour
And 10.40 a.m.
________________________________________________________________________
Q.15 0.01 Square root of 0.0001
PART B
Q.16 If 32 students in a class are girls and in the class the ratio of girls to boys is 16.9. what percentage of the class is female?

Q.17 A pile of notebooks is 15 inches high. If each notebook is 0.25 inches thick, the number of notebooks in the pile is:
(a) 45 (b) 56.25% (c) 64% (d) 72% (e) 32%

Q.18 If a rectangle has length L and the width is one half of the length, then the area of the rectangle is:
(a) L (b) L2 (c) 0.5 L2 (d) 0.25 L2 (e) 2 L

Q.19 A cricket team played 60 matches and won 30% of them. After playing more matches, and winning all of them, the team raised its winning average to 50%. How many matches did the team play after the first 60?
(a) 20 (b) 24 (c) 30 (d) 45 (e) 12

Q.20 A rectangle L inches long and W inches wide is made 3 inches longer. The area (in square inches) has increased by:
(a) 3L (b) 3LW (c) 3(L+W) (d) 3l+3W+9 (e) 3W

Q.21 Which of the following is greater than 1/4?
(a) ¼ (b) ( 1/4)4 (c) 0.04 (d) 1/250 (e) (0.25)2

Q.22 A square of area 169 square feet must have 2 feet cut off one of its edges to fit in
a rectangular room. What is the area (in square feet) of this room?
(a) 121 (b) 143 (c) 165 (d) 167 (e) 117

Q.23 One orange costs x paisas. What is the cost, in rupees, of one dozen oranges?
(a) x/12 (b) 12/100 (c) x/100 (d) 12x/100 (e) 12x

Q.24 One half of the students in a class study Persian one thirds of the remainder study Arabic. The remaining 30 do not study foreign language. How many students are there in the class?
(a) 55 (b) 90 (c) 135 (d) 180 (e) 36

Q.25 The area of a square whose side is 18 feet is equal to the area of a rectangle with a length of 3 yards. The width of the rectangle (in feet) is:

Q.26 Paint is only available in 1 gallon cans. How many gallons should be purchased to cover 760 square feet if one gallon will cover 200 square feet?
(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 7 (e) 3

Q.27 The side of a square is 9 inches. The distance (to the nearest inch) between any two diagonally opposite comers is:
(a) 12 (b) 11 (c) 9 (d) 15 (e) 13

Q.28 Which of the following has the greatest value:
(a) 0.3 (b) 2/5 (c) 1/3 (d) 0.01  π (e) 0.3

Q.29 If one worker can pack 1/6 of a carton in 15 minutes and there are 40 workers, how many cartons can be packed in one and two-thirds ( 1 2/3) hours?
(a) 40 2/9 (b) 43 4/9 (c) 1/3 (d) 0.01 π (e) 0.3

Q.30 If the sum of two numbers is 7 and their difference is 5 then the larger of the two numbers is.
(a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 7 (d) 1 (e) 2